In: Finance
PLEASE EXPLAIN STEPS AND SOLUTIONS ( NO EXCEL )
Year 0 |
Year 1 |
Year 2 |
Year 3 |
|
Cashflow |
-100 |
90 |
90 |
30 |
The company has a 10% cost of capital.
PLEASE EXPLAIN STEPS AND SOLUTIONS ( NO EXCEL )
a. Payback Period = ( Last Year with a Negative Cash Flow ) + [( Absolute Value of negative Cash Flow in that year)/ Total Cash Flow in the following year)]
= 1+(10/90)
= 1.11 Years
Answer = 1.11 Years
Note:
Year | Investment | Cash Inflow | Net Cash Flow | |
0 | -100.00 | - | -100.00 | (Investment + Cash Inflow) |
1 | - | 90.00 | -10.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) |
2 | - | 90.00 | 80.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) |
3 | - | 30.00 | 110.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) |
b.
Discounted Payback Period =
( Last Year with a Negative Cumulative Cash Flow ) + [( Absolute Value of negative Cumulative Cash Flow in that year)/ Total Present Cash Flow in the following year)]
= 1+(18.18/74.38)
= 1.24 Years
Answer = 1.24 Years
Note:
Cash Flow | Discounting Factor ( 10%) | Present Value (Cash Flow * Discounting Factor) | Cumulative Cash Flow (Present Value of Current Year+ Cumulative Cash Flow of Previous Year) | |
0 | -100 | 1 | -100.00 | -100.00 |
1 | 90 | 0.9091 | 81.82 | -18.18 |
2 | 90 | 0.8264 | 74.38 | 56.20 |
3 | 30 | 0.7513 | 22.54 | 78.74 |
c.
Let the IRR be x.
Now , Present Value of Cash Outflows=Present Value of Cash Inflows
100 = 90/(1.0x) +90/ (1.0x)^2 +30/(1.0x)^3
Or x= 58.65%
Hence the IRR is 58.65%
d. NPV = Present Value of Cash Inflows - Present Value of Cash Outflows
= [90*1/(1.10)^1+ 90*1/(1.10)^2+30*1/(1.10)^3]-100
= $ 178.7377911344850 -100
= $ 78.74
Answer = $ 78.74
e. Future value of inflows = Present Value*(1+Rate of interest)^Time
= 178.7377911344850*(1+10%)^3
= $ 237.90
MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflow]^(1/n)-1
= [237.90/100]^(1/3)-1
= 33.49%
Answer = 33.49%