In: Finance
PLEASE EXPLAIN STEPS AND SOLUTIONS ( NO EXCEL )
| 
 Year 0  | 
 Year 1  | 
 Year 2  | 
 Year 3  | 
|
| 
 Cashflow  | 
 -100  | 
 90  | 
 90  | 
 30  | 
The company has a 10% cost of capital.
PLEASE EXPLAIN STEPS AND SOLUTIONS ( NO EXCEL )
a. Payback Period = ( Last Year with a Negative Cash Flow ) + [( Absolute Value of negative Cash Flow in that year)/ Total Cash Flow in the following year)]
= 1+(10/90)
= 1.11 Years
Answer = 1.11 Years
Note:
| Year | Investment | Cash Inflow | Net Cash Flow | |
| 0 | -100.00 | - | -100.00 | (Investment + Cash Inflow) | 
| 1 | - | 90.00 | -10.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) | 
| 2 | - | 90.00 | 80.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) | 
| 3 | - | 30.00 | 110.000 | (Net Cash Flow + Cash Inflow) | 
b.
Discounted Payback Period =
( Last Year with a Negative Cumulative Cash Flow ) + [( Absolute Value of negative Cumulative Cash Flow in that year)/ Total Present Cash Flow in the following year)]
= 1+(18.18/74.38)
= 1.24 Years
Answer = 1.24 Years
Note:
| Cash Flow | Discounting Factor ( 10%) | Present Value (Cash Flow * Discounting Factor) | Cumulative Cash Flow (Present Value of Current Year+ Cumulative Cash Flow of Previous Year) | |
| 0 | -100 | 1 | -100.00 | -100.00 | 
| 1 | 90 | 0.9091 | 81.82 | -18.18 | 
| 2 | 90 | 0.8264 | 74.38 | 56.20 | 
| 3 | 30 | 0.7513 | 22.54 | 78.74 | 
c.
Let the IRR be x.
Now , Present Value of Cash Outflows=Present Value of Cash Inflows
100 = 90/(1.0x) +90/ (1.0x)^2 +30/(1.0x)^3
Or x= 58.65%
Hence the IRR is 58.65%
d. NPV = Present Value of Cash Inflows - Present Value of Cash Outflows
= [90*1/(1.10)^1+ 90*1/(1.10)^2+30*1/(1.10)^3]-100
= $ 178.7377911344850 -100
= $ 78.74
Answer = $ 78.74
e. Future value of inflows = Present Value*(1+Rate of interest)^Time
= 178.7377911344850*(1+10%)^3
= $ 237.90
MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflow]^(1/n)-1
= [237.90/100]^(1/3)-1
= 33.49%
Answer = 33.49%