Question

In: Nursing

Patient Geoge is a 25-year-old white Caucasian male, diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone. His...

Patient Geoge is a 25-year-old white Caucasian male, diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone.
His nursing diagnose is:Excess fluid volume related to increased water retention.
What’s his outcomes?

Solutions

Expert Solution

Anti Diuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone produced by hypothalamus and secreted by posterior pituitary. Its action is to increase the reabsorption of water from the kidney tubules and thus decrease urine output. ADH helps to regulate and balance the amount of water in blood.

SIADH (Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) is a disease in which hypersecretion of ADH occurs. It leads to increased reabsorption of water. This will lead to fluid overload or excess fluid retention in the body.

Outcomes are :-

Increased fluid retention dilute the blood and thus decrease electrolyte concentration.

Hyponatremia due to decreased sodium ion concentration is the major electrolyte imbalance seen in SIADH. Most of the symptoms are due to hyponatremia.

Symptoms are nausea, vomiting, headache, imbalance and confusion. Even seizures or coma may be seen in severe cases.

Decreased extra cellular fluid(ECF) osmolality can also results in cerebral edema.

Management : SIADH is mainly managed by fluid and water restrictions. Medications which inhibit the action of ADH is also used.

Definitive management is to treat the cause. Like, surgical removal in cases of tumors.

Nightingale answered 1 year ago
Next > < Previous

Related Solutions

John is a 23-year-old white Caucasian male, diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone. Prepare a...
John is a 23-year-old white Caucasian male, diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone. Prepare a NURSING CARE PLAN.
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome...
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome (MFS). He is generally well and enjoys attending regular fitness sessions in his local gymnasium. During a recent gym session, he experienced dizziness followed by a fainting episode. He presented at the emergency department and a new systolic murmur was heard. Mr Dietz subsequently underwent screening for cardiovascular abnormalities associated with his family history of Marfan Syndrome. Question 1 The fibrous structure of the...
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome...
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome (MFS). He is generally well and enjoys attending regular fitness sessions in his local gymnasium. During a recent gym session, he experienced dizziness followed by a fainting episode. He presented at the emergency department and a new systolic murmur was heard. Mr Dietz subsequently underwent screening for cardiovascular abnormalities associated with his family history of Marfan Syndrome. Question 4 Describe the secondary complications (or...
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome...
Hans Dietz is a 25 year old male patient with a family history of Marfan Syndrome (MFS). He is generally well and enjoys attending regular fitness sessions in his local gymnasium. During a recent gym session, he experienced dizziness followed by a fainting episode. He presented at the emergency department and a new systolic murmur was heard. Mr Dietz subsequently underwent screening for cardiovascular abnormalities associated with his family history of Marfan Syndrome. Question 1 The fibrous structure of the...
Patient case: A 56 year old white male is referred to you by his provider for...
Patient case: A 56 year old white male is referred to you by his provider for uncontrolled T2DM. He was diagnosed with diabetes 6 months ago. SMBG last 7 days: Fasting (mg/dL): 156, 168, 176, 138, 210, 146, 142 2hr post supper (mg/dL): 210, 190, 148, 168, 220, 280, 300 Past Medical History: T2DM, HTN, CVA Medications: ASA EC 81mg daily Pravastatin 20mg daily Metformin 1000mg bid HCTZ 25mg daily Allergies: NKDA Vaccine history: yearly influenza, Shingrix Jan 2018, Tdap...
You are preparing to discharge a 48 year old male patient recently admitted and diagnosed with...
You are preparing to discharge a 48 year old male patient recently admitted and diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder. Your patient was started on Lithium carbonate and is currently at a therapeutic level. In preparation for discharge, your patient will require education in order to be sent home on Lithium carbonate.    What education would you provide to this patient? What laboratory values are important to assess with this patient and why?
Victor Wallace is a 74-year-old Caucasian male who was diagnosed with moderate Alzheimer disease 2 years ago.
Case Study, Part 1 (pp. 1715–1716)Victor Wallace is a 74-year-old Caucasian male who was diagnosed with moderate Alzheimer disease 2 years ago. Mr. Wallace lives with his 50-year-old daughter, Anne Marie, who is his primary caretaker. His wife of 52 years died of pancreatic cancer 18 months ago.Mr. Wallace presents at his gerontologist’s office at 9:30 on Thursday morning. Ms. Wallace requested the appointment because she is concerned about the changes she has seen in her father over the past...
A 79-year old male patient requires anticoagulant therapy for a newly diagnosed condition and the provider...
A 79-year old male patient requires anticoagulant therapy for a newly diagnosed condition and the provider has ordered both IV heparin and PO warfarin. The patient asks the nurse why he requires two anticoagulants. How should the nurse respond?
A 64-year-old male patient diagnosed with atrial fibrillation is started on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin to...
A 64-year-old male patient diagnosed with atrial fibrillation is started on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin to lower his risk of stroke due to fibrin clots. Despite calculating initial warfarin dosing based on the patient’s age, weight, and sex, laboratory monitoring of anticoagulant activity after the first week of therapy shows that the patient is receiving too much warfarin (his INR was too high indicating he is “over anti-coagulated”). After several weeks of dose adjustment, the patient’s anticoagulant therapy is optimized...
Case A: A 25 year old male patient came to the clinic with chief complain of...
Case A: A 25 year old male patient came to the clinic with chief complain of depression and anger problem. Patient was reported to have mood swings with angry outburst. He has history of irritable temperament, substance abuse and anxiety. Reported occasional agitation, restlessness, poor concentration, passive suicide thoughts, zero sense of guilt with amotivation. He has difficulty delaying gratification, poor frustration tolerance. Clinical Impressions: (Rationale for diagnosis and recommendations for services) DSM-5 Diagnosis with list of diagnostic creterials:                                   ...
ADVERTISEMENT
Subjects
ADVERTISEMENT
Latest Questions
ADVERTISEMENT