In: Economics
Consider a two-period consumption model where an individual has income It > 0 in period t and the (net) interest rate is r > 0. However, suppose the price levels are not assumed to be 1. Instead, let p2 ≥ p1 > 0.
(a) Derive the lifetime budget constraint.
(b) What is the slope of the lifetime budget line? Letting 1 + π = p2/p1 bethe gross inflation rate, given an interpretation of the magnitude of them budget line.
(c) Suppose p2 = p1 and I2 = I1 > 0 initially. Now, suppose there is inflation and the period 2 price rises to p′2 = (1+π)p1, where π > 0, while p1 stays the same. Using a utility maximization diagram, show that an individual who was initially a borrower is made better off if her period 2 income also rises to I2′ = (1 + π)I2.