In: Statistics and Probability
If Levene's test p value is higher than .05 but the p value in the original test was less than .05, what does that mean? If that a good thing or bad thing? I am comparing variance for two samples for an two independent samples t- test.
Ans : it is a good thing
The independent t-test assumes the variances of the two groups you are measuring are equal in the population. If your variances are unequal, this can affect the Type I error rate. The assumption of homogeneity of variance can be tested using Levene's Test of Equality of Variances, which is produced in SPSS Statistics when running the independent t-test procedure.
This test for homogeneity of variance provides an F-statistic and a significance value (p-value). We are primarily concerned with the significance value – if it is greater than 0.05 (i.e., p > .05), our group variances can be treated as equal. However, if p < 0.05, we have unequal variances and we have violated the assumption of homogeneity of variances.
Well in our case levene's test p value is greater than 0.05 which means equal variances can be assumed and there is no violation in applying independent t test
Since the p value of the original test is less than 0.05 , it is statistically significant and we can reject the Null hypothesis