In: Economics
A.
Assumption of no of days in a year to be =365
Process A | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
Machine | 30000 | ||||||
Salvage value | 12000 | ||||||
Fixed cost | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | |
VC | 91250 | 91250 | 91250 | 91250 | 91250 | 91250 | |
Net CF | -30000 | -138250 | -138250 | -138250 | -138250 | -138250 | -126250 |
Process B | ||
FC | 20000 | per year |
VC | 200 | per day |
Workers | 6 | |
Wage | 100 | per day |
Net CF | -312000 | Yearly |
B. We can use present worth method, as it adjust every cash for inflation and interest rate for the futture years. And make it comparable in current year.
C. We should use Minimun acceptable rate of return (MARR) or discount rate (R) that tells the opportunity cost.
D.
E. With 90 days working we find the PW of both the process.
Process A | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
Machine | 30000 | ||||||
Salvage value | 12000 | ||||||
Fixed cost | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | 47000 | |
VC | 22500 | 22500 | 22500 | 22500 | 22500 | 22500 | |
Net CF | 30000 | 69500 | 69500 | 69500 | 69500 | 69500 | 57500 |
Discounted CF | 30000 | 68137.25 | 66801.23 | 65491.4 | 64207.26 | 62948.29 | 51058.35 |
PW | 408643.8(Outflow) | ||||||
No. of days | 90 |
Process B | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
FC | 20000 | per year | ||||
VC | 200 | per day | ||||
Workers | 6 | |||||
Wage | 100 | per day | ||||
Net CF | 147000 | 147000 | 147000 | 147000 | 147000 | 147000 |
Discounted CF | 144117.6 | 141291.8 | 138521.4 | 135805.3 | 133142.4 | 130531.8 |
PW | 823410.3(Outflow) |
As Process A has less cost compared to process B. we go with Process A.