a. Show that for all values of ? there is an infinite sequence of positive eigenvalues...

a. Show that for all values of ? there is an infinite sequence of positive eigenvalues of the problem

? ′′(?) + ??(?) = 0

? ?(0) + ? ′ (0) = 0, ?(1) = 0 (? = ?????)

b. Find eigenvalues of the problem if ? = 1.

Expert Solution

Colby Messinger answered 2 years ago

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a. Show that for all values of ? there is an infinite sequence of positive eigenvalues...

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