In: Finance
A. Given equity risk premium is 5%= (Rm-Rf)
market return is 6.5%=(Rm)
equity risk premium is the extra return that you will receive by investing in the market rather than investing in risk free assets .
Return from risk free assets= Rf
so subsitution Rm in Rm-Rf
=6.5%-Rf=5%
Return from risk free assets= Rf= 1.5%
B I expect the stock to outperform the market. Beacause Beta of the stock explains how the stock will perform in relation to changes in the market. Beta of the market is 1 but the beta of the stock is given as 1.3. This 1.3 tells that the when the market changes by 1% the stock changes by 1.30% so if the market is upward by 1% then the stock will be upward by 1.30%. Thus the stock will outperform the market
C. Estimate equity cost of capital Ke
As per Capital asset pricing model CAPM Ke= Rf+(Beta*(Rm-Rf))
We know that Rf from A=1.5%
Beta of the stock=1.3
Rm-Rf=5%
so Ke=1.5%+1.3(5%)=1.5%+6.5%=8%
So Estimate equity cost of capital Ke =8%
d. terminal value=
Terminal value of the perpectual cash flow= C*(1+g)/(WACC-g)
=Since the cashflow is the dividend and divident grows perpetually from year 6 so the C= Divident paid in year 5
Given divident paid in the 2019= 1$ considered as D0
Then the dividends for the future years = Dividend of the last year (1+growth rate (g))
Dividends are calculated as follows
Growth in dividend(g) | 3% | 3% | 0 | 0 | 0 | 2% | |
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
Dividend amount | 1.000 | 1.030 | 1.061 | 1.061 | 1.061 | 1.061 | 1.082 |
Explaination | given in question | =1*(1+3%) | =(1.030*(1+3%) | 1.061*(1+0) | 1.061*(1+0) | 1.061*(1+0) | 1.061*(1+2%) |
Terminal value= C*(1+g)/(WACC-g)
WACC= Ke = 8%
g is the constant growth rate 2%
C= dividend in year 5
=1.061*(1+2%)(8%-2%)=1.082/6%
so terminal value=18.0353$
e. The terminal value reperesents the price of the stock at the end of the 5 th year if the constant growth in dividend is 2% and cost of capital is 8%
f I would Didivdend growth model to determine the value of the stock
g intrinsic value of the stock
= d1/(1+ke)+ d2/(1+ke)^2+ d3/(1+ke)^3+ d4/(1+ke)^4+d5/(1+ke)^5+P5/(1+ke)^5
year | Dividend amount & price at 5 th year (A) | Present value factor@ ke 8%(B) | Present value(A*B) |
1 | 1.030 | 0.925926=1/(1.08)^1 | 0.953704 |
2 | 1.061 | 0.857339=1/(1.08)^2 | 0.909551 |
3 | 1.061 | 0.793832=1/(1.08)^3 | 0.842177 |
4 | 1.061 | 0.73503=1/(1.08)^4 | 0.779793 |
5 | 1.061 | 0.680583=1/(1.08)^5 | 0.722031 |
6 | 18.0353(price) | 0.680583=1/(1.08)^5 | 12.27452 |
Total | 16.48178 |
intrinsic value of the stock=16.48178$
h if the stock is trading at 60$ then it means stock is trading and premium and hence not recommend to buy. Because it is not worthy