In: Finance
Heritage Inc. has the option to buy a widget machine. The initial investment required today is $240,000. The machine is expected to generate revenues of $65,000 each year for the next 5 years, at which time it can be sold for $20,000 after-tax. If the firm’s hurdle rate is 15%, what is the NPV? What is the PI? What is the IRR? What is the MIRR? What is the payback period?
Please show all work and formulas. Espically for the IRR and MIRR.
Cost of capital = k |
15% |
Reinvestment rate = r* |
15% |
Total years = n |
5 |
Investment = I = |
240,000.00 |
Terminal Value = TV |
||||
Year |
Cash flows = CF |
Df = 1/(1+k)^Year |
Present Value = CF x Df |
CF x (1+r*)^(n-Year) |
0 |
-240,000.00 |
1.000000 |
-240,000.00 |
Exclude investment |
1 |
65,000.00 |
0.869565 |
56,521.7391 |
113,685.41 |
2 |
65,000.00 |
0.756144 |
49,149.3384 |
98,856.88 |
3 |
65,000.00 |
0.657516 |
42,738.5551 |
85,962.50 |
4 |
65,000.00 |
0.571753 |
37,163.9610 |
74,750.00 |
5 |
85,000.00 |
0.497177 |
42,260.0225 |
85,000.00 |
Total PV = NPV = |
-12,166.38 |
458,254.78 |
NPV = -12,166.38
PV of Cash Inflows |
56,521.74 |
49,149.3384 |
42,738.5551 |
37,163.9610 |
42,260.0225 |
Total = 227,833.6161 |
PI or BC = PV of Cash Inflows / Investment = 227833.6161 / 240000 = |
PI or BC = |
0.95 |
MIRR = Modified IRR = (TV ÷ I)1/n – 1 = (458254.78 / 240000)^(1/5)-1 =
|
MIRR = |
13.81% |
Payback period and IRR:
Rate = R = |
||
Year |
Cash flows |
Cumulative cash flow |
0 |
-$240,000.00 |
-$240,000.00 |
1 |
$65,000.00 |
-$175,000.00 |
2 |
$65,000.00 |
-$110,000.00 |
3 |
$65,000.00 |
-$45,000.00 |
4 |
$65,000.00 |
$20,000.00 |
5 |
$85,000.00 |
$105,000.00 |
Payback period = A + |B|/C
A = Last period with a negative cumulative cash flow
|B| = Absolute value of cumulative cash flow at end of period A
C = Total cash flow during the period after A
Payback period = 3+45000/65000
Payback period = 3.69
----------------------------
IRR is obtained from trial and error method we have to fix such rate for discount that it forces NPV = 0 or sum of all cash flows equal to zero
IRR = 12.913535208%
Rate = R = |
12.913535208% |
||||
Year |
Cash flows |
Discount factor = Df = 1/(1+R)^Year |
Present value = Df x Cash flows |
||
0 |
-$240,000.00 |
1.00000 |
-$240,000.00 |
||
1 |
$65,000.00 |
0.88563 |
$57,566.17 |
||
2 |
$65,000.00 |
0.78435 |
$50,982.53 |
||
3 |
$65,000.00 |
0.69464 |
$45,151.83 |
||
4 |
$65,000.00 |
0.61520 |
$39,987.97 |
||
5 |
$85,000.00 |
0.54484 |
$46,311.51 |
||
Total of Present Value = NPV= |
$0.00 |