In: Finance
Consider the following information on two securities Expected rate of return on Security Ri = 0.10 Expected rate of return on Security Rj = 0.20 Variance of ROR of security Ri = 0.16 Variance of ROR of security Rj = 0.25 Covariance between Ri and Rj = -0.04 (minus 0.04)
Obtain the
Obtain the
Asset Expected Return Variance
Ri 0.1 0.16
Rj 0.2 0.25
covariance(Ri,RJ)=-0.04
let Xi amount invest in asset Ri and Xj amount in asset Rj so required return on the portfolio will be
Rp = Xi*Ri+Xj*Rj
Vp=Xi^2*variance(Ri)+Xj^2*variance(Rj)+2*covariance(Ri,Rj)*Xi*Xj
(i) investment fraction for minimum variance
Xi=variance(Rj)-cov(Ri,Rj)/var(Ri)+var(Rj)+var(Rj)-2*cov(Ri,Rj)
=0.25+0.04/0.16+0.25+0.08
=0.59
Xi=0.59
Xj=0.41
(ii)
expected return on minimum variance portfolio
=0.59*0.1+0.41*0.2
=14.1%
(iii) variance on portfolio
=0.59^2*0.16+0.41^2*0.25-0.08*0.41*0.59
=7.8369%
(iv) As we look at the variance of the portfolio it is below the variance of both the securities and the aim of the diversification is to minimise the risk factor so we can say that our portfolio is diversified.
(v) We can see that correlation coefficient is -0.04 . Negative correlation means that both the securities moves in opposite direction so that we can avle to make diversified portfolio if the correlation between the security would be positive then it is difficult to make minimise the risk. threshold to the covariance is 0 as covariance above the 0 it isnot possible to minimise the risk .