In: Finance
a] | Per the Miller-Orr Model, Optimal cash return point is given by: | |
Return Point = Lower Limit + 1/3 × Spread | ||
Spread = 3*(3/4 x Transaction cost x Cashflow variance / interest rate)^(1/3) | ||
Substituting values: | ||
Spread = 3*(0.75 *20*20000/(0.05/365))^(1/3) = | $ 3,896 | |
Optimal return point = 1000+3896/3 = | $ 2,299 | |
b] | Upper cash balance = lower limit+Spread = 1000+3896 = | $ 4,896 |
c] | When the cash balance, which fluctuates randomly, touches | |
the upper limit, the firm sells enough marketable securities | ||
to take the cash balance down to the optimal return point. | ||
Instead, if the cash balance touches the lower limit, enough | ||
marketable securities would be sold to raise the cash | ||
balance to the optimal return point. | ||
Till the cash balance raaches the upper limit or lower limit, | ||
it fluctuates randomly, with no action taken. | ||
The lower limit is set by the firm and would be based on its | ||
requirement for safety stock of cash in hand. Here, it is $1,000. | ||
ANSWERS: | ||
1] | Maximum amount that will be accumulated before investing in marketable securities is the upper control limit of $4,896. | |
2] | The firm will invest till the return point is reached. So it will | |
invest $4,896-$2299 = $2,597 |