In: Finance
A husband and wife are planning for retirement and they believe that a comparison over a five- year period would be appropriate. They are given the following information about one mutual fund that they are considering. Assume that all remaining assets under management are withdrawn by the family at the end of 5 years.
Year Beginning Assets Under Management
30.000.000
35.000.000
25.000.000
15.000.000
20.000.000
Net Return (%)
1. 6%
2. 2%
3. -17%
4. -3%
5. 6%
a. Compute the arithmetic and geometric mean annual return for the fund. Write the formulas. (without excel)
b. What is the money-weighted annual return for the fund? You can calculate the annual cash flow (either additional investment or withdrawal by the couple) at year t as the difference between the beginning assets under management at year t and ending assets under management at year t-1.
a)
arithmetic mean annual return = total return / number of periods
Given annual returns are = 6% , 2% , -17% , -3% , 6%
= [6%+2%+(-17%) + (-3%) + 6% ] / 5
= -1.20%
Geometric mean annual return = [(1+R1)*(1+R2)*(1+R3)*........(1+Rn)]^(1/n) - 1
where n = number of years
R = Yearly return
= [(1+6%)*(1+2%)*(1-17%)*(1-3%)*(1+6%)]^(1/5)
= -1.60%
(NOTE : it seems that year 1 and Year2 returns (i.e.,6% and 2%) provided to me are incorrect.other wise answer is correct)
B)
first we have to calculate cash flows each year and then calculate MWAR
beginning value = 30,000,000
Year 0 cash flow = -30,000,000
Year 1 cash flow:
return= 6%
balance at the year 2 beginning should be = 30,000,000 * (1+6%) = 31,800,000
but it is given balance at the beginning of year 2 = 35,000,000
so additions = 35,000,000 - 31,800,000 = -3,200,000
same way we have to calculate all remaining years cash flows :
Year 2:
35,000,000*(1+2%) = 35,700,000
Wthdrawls = 35,700,000 - 25,000,000 = 10,700,000
Year - 3:
25,000,000*(1-17%) = 20,750,000
with drawls = 20,750,000 - 15,000,000 = 5,750,000
Year 4 :
15,000,000*(1-3%) = 14,550,00
additions = 14,550,000 - 20,000,000 = -5,450,000
Year 5 :
Total withdrawl = 20,000,000*(1+6%) = 21,200,000
Money weighted rate is the rate where present value of these annual amounts = 0
so ,
0 = -30,000,000 - (3,200,000 / (1+r)^1) + [10,700,000 / (1+r)^2] + (5,750,000 / (1+r)^3) - (5,450,000 / (1+r)^4) +(21,200,000 / (1+r)^5)
(we have to use excel or financial calculator to find above rate or we have to solve it by trail and error method)
using excel:
Money weighted annual return = -0.82%
(in case of any further explanation please comment)