In: Statistics and Probability
There are 12 signs of the zodiac. How many people must be present for there to be at least a 50% chance that two or more of them were born under the same sign?
1-P(no one has the same sign) >= 0.5
P(two or more people have the same sign) = 1-P(no one has the same sign)
= 1 - (12!/(12-n)!)/12^n
1-0.5=0.5 >= P(no one has the same sign) = 12!/(12^n * (12-n)!)
0.5 >= 12!/(12^n * (12-n)!)
Solve for n.
n = 5
My question is, why is the probability that no one has the same sign? Could you explain in detail how do you arrive to (12!/(12-n)!)/12^n)?