In: Finance
In this question, you need to price options with various approaches. You will consider puts and calls on a share. Please read following instructions carefully:
Based on this spot price and this strike price as well as the fact that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding, please undertake option valuations and answer related questions according to following instructions:
Additionally, assume that over each of the next two four-month periods, the share price is expected to go up by 11% or down by 10%.
Note: When you use no-arbitrage arguments, you need to show in detail how to set up the riskless portfolios at the different nodes of the binomial tree.
4 month is equivalent to one period . The stock price and the options value at maturity is shown below
68.9976 | 10.9976 | 0.0000 | ||
62.16 | 55.9440 | 0.0000 | 2.0560 | |
56.00 | 50.40 | 45.3600 | 0.0000 | 12.6400 |
t=0 | t=1 | t=2 | Value of Call option at t=2 | Value of Put option at t=2 |
a)
Under risk neutral valuation ,the risk neutral probability is given by
p = (exp(0.06*4/12)- 0.9)/(1.11-0.9) = 0.5724
So, Value of European call option
= (p^2*value of option when stock is $68.9976 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $55.944 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $45.36) / exp(0.06*8/12)
= (0.5724^2*10.9976)/ exp(0.06*8/12)
= $3.46
b)
Under risk neutral valuation
Value of European put option
= (p^2*value of option when stock is $68.9976 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $55.944 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $45.36) / exp(0.06*8/12)
= (2*0.5724*0.4276*2.056+0.4276^2*12.64)/exp(0.06*8/12)
=$3.1876
c)
Under No arbitrage approach,
From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $62.16
Let X shares be purchased and one call option be shorted to create the no arbitrage portfolio
So, X*68.9976- 10.9976 = X*55.944-0
=> X = 0.8425
So, Value of option(C1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by
0.8425*62.16 - C1h = 0.8425*55.944/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C1h= $6.1703
Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $50.4
X*55.944- 0 = X*45.36 -0
=> X = 0
So, Value of option(C1L) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by
0*50.4 - C1L= 0*45.36/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C1L= 0
and From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $56
X*62.16- 6.1703 = X*50.4 -0
=> X = 0.5247
So, Value of option(C) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by
0.5247*56 - C= 0.5247*50.4/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C= $3.46
Under No arbitrage approach,
From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $62.16
Let X shares be purchased and one put option be purchased to create the no arbitrage portfolio
So, X*68.9976 + 0 = X*55.944 +2.056
=> X = 0.1575
So, Value of option(P1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by
0.1575*62.16 + P1h = 0.1575*68.9976/exp(0.06*4/12)
P1h = 0.8617
Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $50.4
X*55.944+2.056= X*45.36 +12.64
=> X = 1
So, Value of option(P1L) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by
1*50.4 + P1L= (1*45.36+12.64)/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> P1L= 6.4515
and From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $56
X*62.16 + 0.8617 = X*50.4 + 6.4515
=> X = 0.4753
So, Value of option(P) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by
0.4753*56 +P= (0.4753*50.4+6.4515)/exp(0.06*4/12)
P = $3.1876
THUS ,iT CAN BE SEEN THAT VALUE OF CALL AND PUT OPTIONS AS DERIVED FROM RISK NEUTRAL VALUATION IS THE SAME AS THAT DERIVED FROM NO-ARBITRAGE APPROACH
d) For 8 month American Put option
The stock price and the options value at maturity is shown below
68.9976 | 0.0000 | |||
62.16 | 55.9440 | 2.0560 | ||
56.00 | 50.40 | 45.3600 | 12.6400 | |
t=0 | t=1 | t=2 | Value of Put option at t=2 | |
Risk neutral probability
p = (exp(0.06*4/12)- 0.9)/(1.11-0.9) = 0.5724
Value of American put option (P1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by
= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $68.9976 at t=2 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $55.944 at t=2)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-62.16)
=max ((0.5724*0+0.4276*2.056)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-62.16)
= 0.8618
Value of American put option (P1l) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by
= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $55.944 at t=2 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $45.36 at t=2)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-50.4)
=max ((0.5724*2.056+0.4276*12.64)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-50.40)
= $7.6
So, Value of option(P) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by
= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $62.16 at t=1 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $50.40 at t=1)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-56)
=max ((0.5724*0.8618+0.4276*7.6)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-55)
= $3.67
So, the value of the American Put option is $3.67