Question

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In this question, you need to price options with various approaches. You will consider puts and...

In this question, you need to price options with various approaches. You will consider puts and calls on a share. Please read following instructions carefully:

  • The spot price of the share will be 56.
  • the strike price of the options will be 58.

Based on this spot price and this strike price as well as the fact that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding, please undertake option valuations and answer related questions according to following instructions:

Additionally, assume that over each of the next two four-month periods, the share price is expected to go up by 11% or down by 10%.

  1. Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of an eight-month European call option using risk-neutral valuation. [1 mark]
  2. Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of an eight-month European put option using risk-neutral valuation. [1 mark]
  3. Verify whether the no-arbitrage approach and the risk-neutral valuation lead to the same results. [1 mark]
  4. Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of an eight-month American put option. [1 mark]
  5. Calculate the deltas of the European put and the European call at the different nodes of the binomial three. [1 mark]

Note: When you use no-arbitrage arguments, you need to show in detail how to set up the riskless portfolios at the different nodes of the binomial tree.

Solutions

Expert Solution

4 month is equivalent to one period . The stock price and the options value at maturity is shown below

68.9976 10.9976 0.0000
62.16 55.9440 0.0000 2.0560
56.00 50.40 45.3600 0.0000 12.6400
t=0 t=1 t=2 Value of Call option at t=2 Value of Put option at t=2

a)

Under risk neutral valuation ,the risk neutral probability is given by

p = (exp(0.06*4/12)- 0.9)/(1.11-0.9) = 0.5724

So, Value of European call option

= (p^2*value of option when stock is $68.9976 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $55.944 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $45.36) / exp(0.06*8/12)

= (0.5724^2*10.9976)/ exp(0.06*8/12)

= $3.46

b)

Under risk neutral valuation

Value of European put option

= (p^2*value of option when stock is $68.9976 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $55.944 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $45.36) / exp(0.06*8/12)

= (2*0.5724*0.4276*2.056+0.4276^2*12.64)/exp(0.06*8/12)

=$3.1876

c)

Under No arbitrage approach,

From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $62.16

Let X shares be purchased and one call option be shorted to create the no arbitrage portfolio

So, X*68.9976- 10.9976 = X*55.944-0

=> X = 0.8425

So, Value of option(C1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by

0.8425*62.16 - C1h = 0.8425*55.944/exp(0.06*4/12)

=> C1h= $6.1703

Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $50.4

X*55.944- 0 = X*45.36 -0

=> X = 0

So, Value of option(C1L) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by

0*50.4 - C1L= 0*45.36/exp(0.06*4/12)

=> C1L= 0

and  From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $56

X*62.16- 6.1703 = X*50.4 -0

=> X = 0.5247

So, Value of option(C) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by

0.5247*56 - C= 0.5247*50.4/exp(0.06*4/12)

=> C= $3.46

Under No arbitrage approach,

From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $62.16

Let X shares be purchased and one put option be purchased to create the no arbitrage portfolio

So, X*68.9976 + 0 = X*55.944 +2.056

=> X = 0.1575

So, Value of option(P1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by

0.1575*62.16 + P1h = 0.1575*68.9976/exp(0.06*4/12)

P1h = 0.8617

Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $50.4

X*55.944+2.056= X*45.36 +12.64

=> X = 1

So, Value of option(P1L) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by

1*50.4 + P1L= (1*45.36+12.64)/exp(0.06*4/12)

=> P1L= 6.4515

and  From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $56

X*62.16 + 0.8617 = X*50.4 + 6.4515

=> X = 0.4753

So, Value of option(P) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by

0.4753*56 +P= (0.4753*50.4+6.4515)/exp(0.06*4/12)

P = $3.1876

THUS ,iT CAN BE SEEN THAT VALUE OF CALL AND PUT OPTIONS AS DERIVED FROM RISK NEUTRAL VALUATION IS THE SAME AS THAT DERIVED FROM NO-ARBITRAGE APPROACH

d) For 8 month American Put option

The stock price and the options value at maturity is shown below

68.9976 0.0000
62.16 55.9440 2.0560
56.00 50.40 45.3600 12.6400
t=0 t=1 t=2 Value of Put option at t=2

Risk neutral probability

p = (exp(0.06*4/12)- 0.9)/(1.11-0.9) = 0.5724

Value of American put option (P1h) at t=1 when stock price is $62.16 is given by

= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $68.9976 at t=2 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $55.944 at t=2)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-62.16)

=max ((0.5724*0+0.4276*2.056)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-62.16)

= 0.8618

Value of American put option (P1l) at t=1 when stock price is $50.4 is given by

= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $55.944 at t=2 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $45.36 at t=2)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-50.4)

=max ((0.5724*2.056+0.4276*12.64)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-50.40)

= $7.6

So, Value of option(P) at t=0 when stock price is $56 is given by

= max ((p*value of option when stock price is $62.16 at t=1 + (1-p)*value of option when stock price is $50.40 at t=1)/exp(0.06*4/12) , 58-56)

=max ((0.5724*0.8618+0.4276*7.6)/exp(0.06*4/12), 58-55)

= $3.67

So, the value of the American Put option is $3.67


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