In: Finance
A firm has purchased for $14,000 a machine with a five year
useful life. The machine will be
depreciated using ADS on a three-year depreciation schedule. The
uniform annual benefits are
$3600. The firm’s effective tax rate is 47% and the MARR before tax
is 10%. The firm estimates
that there is a 40% likelihood that the machine will have a salvage
value of $5,000 and
due to the probability of obsolescence, a 60% likelihood that the
machine will have no salvage
value. Determine if this is a satisfactory investment.
DEPRECIATION TAX SHIELD | ||||||||||
3 Year ADS depreiation: | ||||||||||
Cost of Asset | $14,000 | Tax Rate=47% | ||||||||
A | B=A*$14000 | C=B*47% | ||||||||
Year | Recovery Rate | Annual Depreciation | Depreciation Tax shield | |||||||
1 | 16.67% | $2,334 | $1,097 | |||||||
2 | 33.33% | $4,666 | $2,193 | |||||||
3 | 33.33% | $4,666 | $2,193 | |||||||
4 | 16.67% | $2,334 | $1,097 | |||||||
Salvage Value: | Probability | Salvage Value*Probability | ||||||||
$5,000 | 40.00% | $2,000 | ||||||||
$0 | 60.00% | $0 | ||||||||
SUM | $2,000 | |||||||||
Expected Salvage Value | $2,000 | |||||||||
After tax Salvge value=2000*(1-0.47)= | $1,060 | |||||||||
After Tax MARR =10*(1-0.47)= | 5.30% | |||||||||
Present Value of Cash Flow | ||||||||||
(Cash Flow)/((1+i)^N) | ||||||||||
i= Discount Rate= MARR=5.3%=0.053 | ||||||||||
After Tax annual benefit =3600*(1-0.47) | $1,908 | |||||||||
N | Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | |||
A | Initial Cash Flow | ($14,000) | ||||||||
B | AnnualBenefit(after tax) | $1,908 | $1,908 | $1,908 | $1,908 | $1,908 | ||||
C | Depreciation tax shield | $1,097 | $2,193 | $2,193 | $1,097 | |||||
D | After tax salvage value | $1,060 | ||||||||
E=A+B+C+D | Net cash flow | ($14,000) | $3,005 | $4,101 | $4,101 | $3,005 | $2,968 | SUM | ||
PV=E/(1.053^N) | PresentValue of Cash Flow | ($14,000) | $2,854 | $3,699 | $3,513 | $2,444 | $2,293 | $801 | ||
NPV=Sumof PV | Net Present Value | $801 | ||||||||
Yes, It is a satisfactory investment | ||||||||||
NPV is positive | ||||||||||