In: Finance
An investment has an installed cost of $412,670.The cash flows over the four-year life of the investment are projected to be$212,817, $153,408, $102,389, and $72,308. If the discount rate is zero, what is the NPV? If the discount rate is infinite, what is the NPV? At what discount rate is the NPV just equal to zero? Sketch the NPV profile for this investment based on these three points.
1) | If the discount rate is Zero. | |
We know that | ||
PV = FV/(1+i)^n | ||
Where, | ||
PV= Present Value | ||
FV= Future Value | ||
i= Interest rate per annum or discount factor | ||
n= Number of years | ||
So when i= 0, in the equation PV= FV/(1+i)^n, denomenator will always be 1. | ||
Therefore, the PV will be same as FV. | ||
NPV = Present value of inflow- Present Value of outflow. | ||
= $212817+$153408+$102389+$72308-$412670 | ||
= $128252 | ||
2) | If the discount rate is infinity. | |
We know that, | ||
any number divided by infinity is 0. | ||
Therefore, | ||
PV = FV/(1+i)^n turns out to be PV= FV/0 | ||
We know that, | ||
any number divided by Zero is undefined. | ||
So no solution exists. |
3) NPV is zero when discount rate = IRR
Calculation of IRR on trail and error method.
Years | Cash Flows | Discount Factor @ 15% | Present Value | Discount Factor @ 14% | Present Value |
0 | -412670 | 1 | -412670 | 1 | -412670 |
1 | 212817 | 0.8696 | 185058 | 0.8772 | 186682 |
2 | 153408 | 0.7561 | 115998 | 0.7695 | 118042 |
3 | 102389 | 0.6575 | 67322 | 0.6750 | 69110 |
4 | 72308 | 0.5718 | 41342 | 0.5921 | 42812 |
NPV | -2948 | 3976 |
For 1% change | 6924 | change in present value | ||
For $3976 change in present value | 1*3976/6924 | change in percentage | ||
= | 0.57 | change in percentage | ||
Therefore, 14.57% is the required IRR | ||||