In: Finance
Assume you have just been hired as a Finance Manager of Anjung Puteri. The company’s earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) was RM500,000 last year and is expected to remain constant over time. Since no expansion capital will be required, Anjung Puteri plans to pay out all earnings as dividends. The management group owns fifty percent (50%) of the stock and the rest is traded in the over-the-counter market.
In your finance course, you learned that most firm owners would be financially better off if the firm used some debt. When you suggested this to your new boss, she encouraged you to pursue the idea. Anjung Puteri is currently financed with all equity, it has 100,000 shares outstanding and the current market price is RM15 per share. If Anjung Puteri were to recapitalize, debt would be used, and the funds received would be used to repurchase stock at the RM15 per share market price. Anjung Puteri is in a 24% tax bracket. The company leases all its equipment and its building. Therefore, Anjung Puteri has no depreciation expense.
From your finance training, you know that there is an optimum relationship between debt and equity at which the market value per share will be maximized. You recall that you can use estimated cash flows, weighted average cost of capital (WACC), and the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) to estimate share value. As a first step you found the following information on Yahoo finance:
“The current prime borrowing rate is 5.14% and the current risk-free rate (10 year Malaysia Government bond) is 3.07%. You estimate the market risk premium into the foreseeable future at 8%.
Next, you obtained from a local investment banker the following estimated debt risk premiums and subjective betas for Anjung Puteri at various debt levels:
Scenario |
Amount Borrowed (RM) |
Debt Risk Premium (%) |
Subjective Beta |
1 |
0 |
2.0 |
2.0 |
2 |
187,500 |
2.0 |
2.1 |
3 |
375,000 |
2.5 |
2.3 |
4 |
562,500 |
3.5 |
2.5 |
5 |
750,000 |
5.0 |
2.9 |
6 |
937,500 |
7.0 |
3.3 |
7 |
1,125,000 |
10.0 |
3.7 |
Required:
Hint: Total Asset = Earning/WACC
WACC = (Cost of Equity*Weight of Equity )+ (Cost of debt*weight of debt)
Cost of Equity = Risk free rate + Risk Premium* Beta
Risk free Rate = 3.07%
Rsk Premium = 8%
Scenario | Amount Borrowed (RM) | Debt Risk Premium (%) | Subjective Beta |
1 | - | 2 | 2 |
2 | 1,87,500 | 2 | 2.1 |
3 | 3,75,000 | 2.5 | 2.3 |
4 | 5,62,500 | 3.5 | 2.5 |
5 | 7,50,000 | 5 | 2.9 |
6 | 9,37,500 | 7 | 3.3 |
7 | 11,25,000 | 10 | 3.7 |
Scenario 1
Cost of Equity = Risk free rate + Risk Premium* Beta
= 3.07%+8%(2)
= 19.07%
Under First scenario there is no debt hence Cost of equity = WACC
Therefore Total Assets Value = Earnings / WACC
= 500000/19.07%
= 2621919.2448
Under Second scenario
Cost of Equity = Risk free rate + Risk Premium* Beta
= 3.07%+8%(2.1)
=19.87%
Cost of debt = Interest Rate* (1-Tax Rate)
= (Current borrowing rate +risk premium)*(1-Tax Rate)
= (5.14%+2%)*(1-0.24)
=5.4264%
debt value=187500 Weight of debt = 187500/1500000 = 0.125
Value of Equity = (100000*15)-187500 Weight of Equity = 0.875
=13,12,500
WACC = 0.125*5.4264% + 0.875*19.87%
= 18.06455 %
Entity VAlue = 500000/18.06455% = RM2767852
Debt VAlue = 187500
SO Equity VAlue = 2767852-187500= 2580352
Following tables can helps for solving problem easily
For Cost of equity
Scenario[1] | Amount Borrowed (RM)[2] | Debt Risk Premium (%)[3] | Subjective Beta[4] | Risk Premium [5] | [4]*[5] | Risk Free rate[6] | Cost of Equity ([4]*[5])+[6] |
1 | - | 2 | 2 | 8 | 16 | 3.07 | 19.07 |
2 | 1,87,500 | 2 | 2.1 | 8 | 16.8 | 3.07 | 19.87 |
3 | 3,75,000 | 2.5 | 2.3 | 8 | 18.4 | 3.07 | 21.47 |
4 | 5,62,500 | 3.5 | 2.5 | 8 | 20 | 3.07 | 23.07 |
5 | 7,50,000 | 5 | 2.9 | 8 | 23.2 | 3.07 | 26.27 |
6 | 9,37,500 | 7 | 3.3 | 8 | 26.4 | 3.07 | 29.47 |
7 | 11,25,000 | 10 | 3.7 | 8 | 29.6 | 3.07 | 32.67 |
For Cost of debt
Scenario[1] | Amount Borrowed (RM)[2] | Debt Risk Premium (%)[3] | Interest Rate[4] | Cost of debt [3]+[4] | [5] | Effective cost of debt [3]+[4]*[5] |
1 | - | 2 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
2 | 1,87,500 | 2 | 5.14 | 7.14 | 0.76 | 5.4264 |
3 | 3,75,000 | 2.5 | 5.14 | 7.64 | 0.76 | 5.8064 |
4 | 5,62,500 | 3.5 | 5.14 | 8.64 | 0.76 | 6.5664 |
5 | 7,50,000 | 5 | 5.14 | 10.14 | 0.76 | 7.7064 |
6 | 9,37,500 | 7 | 5.14 | 12.14 | 0.76 | 9.2264 |
7 | 11,25,000 | 10 | 5.14 | 15.14 | 0.76 | 11.5064 |
For WACC
Scenario[1] | Amount Borrowed (RM)[2] | Equity Value (150000-[2]) | Debt Weight ([2]/1500000)=[3] | Equity Weight (1-[3])=[4] | Cost of debt[5] | Cost of Equity[6] | WACC ([3]*[5] + [4]*[6]) |
1 | - | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | NA |
2 | 1,87,500 | 13,12,500 | 0.125 | 0.875 | 5.4264 | 19.87 | 18.06455 |
3 | 3,75,000 | 11,25,000 | 0.25 | 0.75 | 5.8064 | 21.47 | 17.5541 |
4 | 5,62,500 | 9,37,500 | 0.375 | 0.625 | 6.5664 | 23.07 | 16.88115 |
5 | 7,50,000 | 7,50,000 | 0.5 | 0.5 | 7.7064 | 26.27 | 16.9882 |
6 | 9,37,500 | 5,62,500 | 0.625 | 0.375 | 9.2264 | 29.47 | 16.81775 |
7 | 11,25,000 | 3,75,000 | 0.75 | 0.25 | 11.5064 | 32.67 | 16.7973 |
For Entity value and equity VAlue
Scenario[1] | Amount Borrowed (RM)[2] | WACC | Earnings | Value of entity= Earnings/WACC | Value of equity=Value of entity-Value of debt borrowed |
1 | - | NA | 500000 | NA | NA |
2 | 1,87,500 | 18.06% | 500000 | 2767852 | 25,80,352 |
3 | 3,75,000 | 17.55% | 500000 | 2848337 | 24,73,337 |
4 | 5,62,500 | 16.88% | 500000 | 2961884 | 23,99,384 |
5 | 7,50,000 | 16.99% | 500000 | 2943211 | 21,93,211 |
6 | 9,37,500 | 16.82% | 500000 | 2973049 | 20,35,549 |
7 | 11,25,000 | 16.80% | 500000 | 2976669 | 18,51,669 |