Question

Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies manufacturing overhead cost to products on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate was based on a cost formula that estimates $900,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 75,000 machine-hours.

During the year, a large quantity of furniture on the market resulted in cutting back production and a buildup of furniture in the company’s warehouse. The company’s cost records revealed the following actual cost and operating data for the year:

Machine-hours		60,000
Manufacturing overhead cost	$	850,000
Inventories at year-end:
Raw materials	$	30,000
Work in process (includes overhead applied of $36,000)	$	100,000
Finished goods (includes overhead applied of $180,000)	$	500,000
Cost of goods sold (includes overhead applied of $504,000)	$	1,400,000

Required:

1. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead.

2. Assume that the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead to Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

3. Assume that the company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead proportionally to Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

4. How much higher or lower will net operating income be if the underapplied or overapplied overhead is allocated to Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold rather than being closed to Cost of Goods Sold?

(This question was already posted but someone left the wrong answer)

Answer 1

Hi

Let me know in case you face any issue. In this question, it is not clearly mentioned that overhead should be applied on the basis of already allocated overhead balance. Therefore, underapplied overhead has been closed on the basis of endng balance of WIP, FG and COGS.

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