Question

In: Finance

One year ago, your company purchased a machine used in manufacturing for $110,000. You have learned...

One year ago, your company purchased a machine used in manufacturing for $110,000. You have learned that a new machine is available that offers many advantages; you can purchase it for $150,000 today. It will be depreciated on a straight-line basis over ten years, after which it has no salvage value. You expect that the new machine will contribute EBITDA (earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization) of $60,000 per year for the next ten years. The current machine is expected to produce EBITDA of $22,000 per year. The current machine is being depreciated on a straight-line basis over a useful life of 11 years, after which it will have no salvage value, so depreciation expense for the current machine is $10,000 per year. All other expenses of the two machines are identical. The market value today of the current machine is $50,000. Your company's tax rate is 35%, and the opportunity cost of capital for this type of equipment is 10%. Is it profitable to replace the year-old machine? The NPV of the replacement is $nothingm. (Round to the nearest dollar.)

Solutions

Expert Solution

Answer: Depreciation every year for new machine = 150000/10 = 15000

Depreciation every year for Old machine = 110000/11 = 10000

EBITDA, new machine = $60000

EBITDA, Old Machine = $22000

Market Value of old machine = $50000

Book value = $110000 - $10000 = $100000, loss of $50000 on selling it now. it will result in a tax save of 50000*0.35 = $17500

If we buy the new machine incremental benefit would be

Year 0 year 1-10 Calculation
Revenue - -
Operating expenses - -
Gross margin - 38000 (60000-22000)
Dep 5000 (15000-5000)
EBIT 33000 (Gross margin- Dep)
Tax (at 35%) 11550 (EBIT*0.35)
Incremental Earnings 21450 (EBIT - tax)
Add back depreciation 26450 (21450+ 5000)
NWC
Capital expenditure -82500 (-150000+67500)

FCF = 26450

Calculate the present value of this equation

NPV = -82450 + 26450 * PV(10, 10%)

you can also solve this using present value formula cash flow/(1+interest rate)^ (no of years)

Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Cash Flow -82450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450 26450
Present value -82450 24045.45 21859.5 19872.28 18065.70589 16423 14930.33545 13573.03223 12339.12 11217.38 10197.62

NPV = 80,073.8

It is coming out to be positive which means we can opt for the new machine.


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