In: Finance
Problem Four :
Kaplan Incorporated currently uses an older model BAII plus milling machine that was
purchased two years ago for $10,000. The machine would be sold today for $3,000. If the old
machine is not replaced, it is expected to operate for another 4 years at which time its salvage
value will be $1,200. The BAII plus currently generates revenues of $13,000 per year. The
machine has annual operating costs of $8,000 per year. The company maintains an investment of
$1,750 in operating net working capital with the old machine.
Kaplan Incorporated is considering acquiring a new milling machine to replace its old milling
machine. The new milling machine has a capital cost of $12,000 and an estimated useful life of 4
years and an expected salvage value of $2,000. The company expects the new machine to
generate total revenues of $25,000 per year. The new machine would have operating costs of
$11,000 per year. With the new machine, the investment in operating net working capital would
be increased to $2,500 and remain at this level until the end of the project.
Both machines have a CCA rate of 30%. The company’s tax rate is 35%. The project has a
required rate of return of 15% per year compounded annually.
What is the NPV of the project, which replaces the old machine with the new machine?
Please show me how to do this question on excel showing all formulas. The answer was also provided as $9,694.16. However I want to know how the prof got to this answer.
1) In case the machine is installed today, the cash outflow would be as follows:
Particulars | $ |
Cost | 12000 |
Disposal of old machine (After Tax)(Working Note 1) | -1950 |
Net cash outflow | 10050 |
Net working capital of old machine | -1750 |
Net working capital of new machine | 2500 |
Total | 10800 |
Formula used here is the sum formula in excel.
2) Now we will calculate the incremental cash inflow after tax to determine NPV of the project.
Cash inflow after tax of old machine (All amounts in $):
Year | Revenue | Operating cost excluding CCA | CCA(Working Note 2) | Net Revenue before tax | Tax | PAT | Cash flow after tax |
1 | 13000 | 8000 | 1470 | 3530 | 1235.5 | 2294.5 | 3764.5 |
2 | 13000 | 8000 | 1029 | 3971 | 1389.85 | 2581.15 | 3610.15 |
3 | 13000 | 8000 | 720.3 | 4279.7 | 1497.895 | 2781.805 | 3502.105 |
4 | 13000 | 8000 | 504.21 | 4495.79 | 1573.527 | 2922.264 | 3426.4735 |
Cash inflow after tax of new machine (All amounts in $):
Year | Revenue | Operating cost excluding CCA | CCA | Net Revenue before tax | Tax | PAT | Cash flow after tax |
1 | 25000 | 11000 | 3600 | 10400 | 3640 | 6760 | 10360 |
2 | 25000 | 11000 | 2520 | 11480 | 4018 | 7462 | 9982 |
3 | 25000 | 11000 | 1764 | 12236 | 4282.6 | 7953.4 | 9717.4 |
4 | 25000 | 11000 | 1234.8 | 12765.2 | 4467.82 | 8297.38 | 9532.18 |
4 | 2000* | 700 | 1300 |
Incremental Cash Flow After Tax | ^D.F.@15% | PVAF |
6595.5 | 0.869565 | 5735.217 |
6371.85 | 0.756144 | 4818.034 |
6215.295 | 0.657516 | 4086.657 |
6105.7065 | 0.571753 | 3490.958 |
1300 | 0.571753 | 743.2792 |
Total | 18874.15 |
Therefore, NPV of the project is $8074.15 (i.e. $18874.15-$10800)
*$2000 is the salvage value of the new machine at the end of year 4.
^D.F., i.e. Discounting Factor is calculated in excel by this formula: year 1: 1/1.15, year 2:1/(1.15^2), year 3:1/(1.15^3) & year 4: 1/(1.15^4)
Working Notes:
1] If we are to sell old machine today, the proceeds will be received after tax which will be calculated as $3000 - ($3000*0.35) which comes to $1950.
2]CCA of old & new machine:
(a) CCA of old machine:
Year | Opening BV ($) | Rate | CCA ($) | Closing BV($) |
1 | 4900 | 30% | 1470 | 3430 |
2 | 3430 | 30% | 1029 | 2401 |
3 | 2401 | 30% | 720.3 | 1680.7 |
4 | 1680.7 | 30% | 504.21 | 1176.49 |
(b) CCA of new machine:
Year | Opening BV($) | Rate | CCA($) | Closing BV($) |
1 | 12000 | 30% | 3600 | 8400 |
2 | 8400 | 30% | 2520 | 5880 |
3 | 5880 | 30% | 1764 | 4116 |
4 | 4116 | 30% | 1234.8 | 2881.2 |