In: Finance
Let’s put it all together in an example: Hermione Corp. has 400,000 shares of common stock outstanding, trading at $52.85 per share. They have 90,000 shares of preferred stock trading at $74.14 per share, and $15,000,000 (face value) in debt, with 8 years to maturity, a 9% coupon, and a YTM of 8%. The firm has a beta of 1.97, the risk-free rate is 2.5% and the expected market return is 12%. Their last preferred dividend was $9.25 per share. Their tax rate is 36%. What is Hermione Corp’s WACC?
Specific step solution,please.
K = N |
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon)/(1 + YTM)^k] + Par value/(1 + YTM)^N |
k=1 |
K =8 |
Bond Price =∑ [(9*1000/100)/(1 + 8/100)^k] + 1000/(1 + 8/100)^8 |
k=1 |
Bond Price = 1057.47 |
MV of equity=Price of equity*number of shares outstanding |
MV of equity=52.85*400000 |
=21140000 |
MV of Bond=Par value*bonds outstanding*%age of par |
MV of Bond=1000*15000*1.05747 |
=15862050 |
MV of Preferred equity=Price*number of shares outstanding |
MV of Preferred equity=74.14*90000 |
=6672600 |
MV of firm = MV of Equity + MV of Bond+ MV of Preferred equity |
=21140000+15862050+6672600 |
=43674650 |
Weight of equity = MV of Equity/MV of firm |
Weight of equity = 21140000/43674650 |
W(E)=0.484 |
Weight of debt = MV of Bond/MV of firm |
Weight of debt = 15862050/43674650 |
W(D)=0.3632 |
Weight of preferred equity = MV of preferred equity/MV of firm |
Weight of preferred equity = 6672600/43674650 |
W(PE)=0.1528 |
Cost of equity |
As per CAPM |
Cost of equity = risk-free rate + beta * (expected return on the market - risk-free rate) |
Cost of equity% = 2.5 + 1.97 * (12 - 2.5) |
Cost of equity% = 21.22 |
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt*(1-tax rate) |
After tax cost of debt = 8*(1-0.36) |
= 5.12 |
cost of preferred equity |
cost of preferred equity = Preferred dividend/price*100 |
cost of preferred equity = 9.25/74.14*100 |
=12.48 |
WACC=after tax cost of debt*W(D)+cost of equity*W(E)+Cost of preferred equity*W(PE) |
WACC=5.12*0.3632+21.22*0.484+12.48*0.1528 |
WACC =14.04% |