In: Finance
A three-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $3. The stock price is $20, the strike price is $25, and the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum. Is there an arbitrage opportunity? Show the arbitrage transactions now and in three months.
Strike price = $ 25
Stock price = $20
Risk free rate = 5% p.a.
3 month risk free rate = 5%/4 =1.24% or 0.0125
Actual value of Put option = $3
Price of put option = PV of strike price - current market price)
PV of strike price = Strike price/(1+interest rate for period)
VP = (25/1.0125) - 20
VP = $4.69
Actual value is less i.e. $3.00. it means it is cheaper. So put option shall be long. There will be net gain of $1.69. Along with put option, 1 share is to be long.
So, at current time
Long 1 stock for $20
Long 1 put for $3
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Cash outflow $23
At 3 months (Assume market price = $20)
Value of put option = $ 5
(Strike price - Market price)
(25-20)
Sale price of stock $20
Borrowing cost (23*0.0125)= -0.29
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Cash inflow . $24.71
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Net inflow = $1.71
P.V. of net inflow or arbitrage profit = 1.71/1.025 = $1.69.
So, it is clear that $1.69 arbitrage profit shall accrue from buying put option with share.
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