In: Finance
Accounting breakeven is given by
BEP= total fixed cost /contribution per unit
Total fixed cost =1000+depreciation =1000+3000/5=1600$
Contribution per unit = 80-60=$20 per unit
Break even point= 1600/20=80 units
NPV Break even means the no of units that makes the NPV=0
Let those no of units be = x
NPV = PV of inflows - PV of outflows
Cash inflows = operating profit before depreciation+ depreciation tax shield
= EBITDA ×(1-t)+D*t
Where
D= depreciation =3000/5=600
t = tax rate=0%
EBITDA= units × contribution per unit - Fixed cost
= x ×20-1000= 20x-1000
Since t=0
Cash inflows = 20x-1000
PV of cash inflows = (20x-1000)×annuity factor for 5 years @10%
Annuity factor AF (r,n)= (1-(1+r)^-n)/r
AF(10%,5) = (1-1.1^-5)/.1 = 3.791
PV of inflows = 3.791(20x-1000)
PV of outflows = initial cash outflows = 3000
Therefore
(3.791(20×-1000) -3000)=0
x=89.56 units
Part b
If tax rate i.e. t= 30%
Cash inflows = (20x-1000)×.70 +600×.30
PV of inflows = ((20x-1000)×.70+180)×3.791
Hence
((20x-1000)×.70+180)×3.791=3000
x= 93.67 units
Yes the answer would change,If we need to pay the tax our NPV breakeven would shift away.
Part c
Degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution/ EBIT
Let us first calculate contribution margin ratio (CMR) which is = contribution/sale = 20/80=25%
EBIT(operating profit)= EBITDA- depreciation
(Total Contribution = sales×CMR= 8000×25%=2000
EBIT= 2000- 1000-600= 400
DOL= 2000/400= 5
Part d
If sales are $10000
Contribution = 25%×10000=2500
EBIT = 2500-1000-600=900
DOL= 2500/900= 2.78
The DOL has decreased with the increase in sales, Because the fixed cost per (1600/units) has decreased resultingly profit per unit has increased this will continue with the increase in sales
Case 1
No of units = 8000/80= 100
fixed cost per unit = 1600/100=16
Ebit= 20-16=4
Dol= 20/4=5
Case2
Units= 10000/80=125
Fixed cost per unit = 1600/125=12.8
Ebit= 20-12.8= 7.2
Dol= 20/7.2= 2.78