In: Finance
Based on a spot price of $46 and strike price of $48 as well as the fact that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding, please undertake option valuations and answer related questions according to following instructions:
risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding
Spot price: 46
Strike Price: 48
Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of an eight-month European call option using the no-arbitrage approach
Additionally, assume that over each of the next two four-month periods, the share price is expected to go up by 11% or down by 10%.
Note: When you use no-arbitrage arguments, you need to show in detail how to set up the riskless portfolios at the different nodes of the binomial tree.
Let one time step be equal to 4 months
With u=1.11 and d =0.9 the stock lattice, value of call option at t=2 is given below
56.68 | 8.68 | 0.00 | ||
51.06 | 45.95 | 0.00 | 2.05 | |
46.00 | 41.40 | 37.26 | 0.00 | 10.74 |
t=0 | t=1 | t=2 | Value of Call option at t=2 | Value of Put option at t=2 |
For European Call option
Under No arbitrage approach,
From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $51.06
Let X shares be purchased and one call option be shorted to create the no arbitrage portfolio
So, X*56.68- 8.68 = X*45.95 -0
=> X = 0.8092
So, Value of option(C1h) at t=1 when stock price is $51.06 is given by
0.8092*51.06 - C1h = 0.8092*45.95/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C1h= $4.868
Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $41.4
X*45.95- 0 = X*37.26 -0
=> X = 0
So, Value of option(C1L) at t=1 when stock price is $41.4 is given by
0*41.4 - C1L= 0*37.26/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C1L= 0
and From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $46
X*51.06- 4.868 = X*41.4 -0
=> X = 0.5039
So, Value of option(C) at t=0 when stock price is $46 is given by
0.5039*46 - C= 0.5039*41.4/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> C= $2.73
For European Put option
Under No arbitrage approach,
From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $51.06
Let X shares be purchased and one put option be purchased to create the no arbitrage portfolio
So, X*56.68 + 0 = X*45.95 +2.05
=> X = 0.1908
So, Value of option(P1h) at t=1 when stock price is $51.06 is given by
0.1908*51.06 + P1h = 0.1908*56.68/exp(0.06*4/12)
P1h = 0.8575
Similarly From t=1 to t=2 when stock price is $41.4
X*455.95+2.05= X*37.26 +10.74
=> X = 1
So, Value of option(P1L) at t=1 when stock price is $41.4 is given by
1*41.4 + P1L= (1*45.95+2.05)/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> P1L= 5.6495
and From t=0 to t=1when stock price is $46
X*51.06 + 0.8575 = X*41.4 + 5.6495
=> X = 0.4961
So, Value of option(P) at t=0 when stock price is $46 is given by
0.4961*46 +P= (0.4961*51.06+0.8575)/exp(0.06*4/12)
=> P= $2.85
From put call parity
C+K*exp(-rt) = P +S
LHS = 2.73+ 48*exp(-0.06*8/12) = $48.85
RHS = 2.85+46 = $48.85
As LHS = RHS , the Put call parity holds
d) Under risk neutral valuation ,the risk neutral probability is given by
p = (exp(0.06*4/12)- 0.9)/(1.11-0.9) = 0.5724
So, Value of European call option
= (p^2*value of option when stock is $56.68 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $45.95 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $37.26) / exp(0.06*8/12)
= (0.5724^2*8.68)/exp(0.06*8/12) = $2.73
e) Under risk neutral valuation
Value of European put option
= (p^2*value of option when stock is $56.68 + 2*p*(1-p)*value of option when stock is $45.95 + (1-p)^2*value of option when stock is $37.26) / exp(0.06*8/12)
= (2*0.5724*0.4276*2.05+0.4276^2*10.74)/exp(0.06*8/12)
=$2.85
Thus, we get the same value of the Call and the Put option from both no-arbitrage approach and the risk-neutral valuation.