In: Finance
Vandalay Industries is considering the purchase of a new machine for the production of latex. Machine A costs $2,100,000 and will last for 4 years. Variable costs are 38 percent of sales, and fixed costs are $150,000 per year. Machine B costs $4,310,000 and will last for 7 years. Variable costs for this machine are 27 percent of sales and fixed costs are $115,000 per year. The sales for each machine will be $8.62 million per year. The required return is 10 percent and the tax rate is 35 percent. Both machines will be depreciated on a straight-line basis. |
a) If the company plans to replace the machine when it wears out on a perpetual basis, what is the EAC for machine A? |
b) If the company plans to replace the machine when it wears out on a perpetual basis, what is the EAC for machine B? |
2. A stock has an expected return of 18 percent, its beta is 1.4, and the expected return on the market is 14 percent. What must the risk-free rate be? (Do not round your intermediate calculations.)
Question 1:
a. We first calculate the NPV for machine A and then the EAC for Machine as shown in the table below:
Machine A | |||||
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
Initial Cost | -2100000 | ||||
Sales | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | |
Variable costs | -3275600 | -3275600 | -3275600 | -3275600 | |
Fixed costs | -150000 | -150000 | -150000 | -150000 | |
Depreciation | -525000 | -525000 | -525000 | -525000 | |
Pre tax Income | 4669400 | 4669400 | 4669400 | 4669400 | |
Taxes at 35% | -1634290 | -1634290 | -1634290 | -1634290 | |
Net Income | 3035110 | 3035110 | 3035110 | 3035110 | |
Add back depreciation | 525000 | 525000 | 525000 | 525000 | |
Free cash flow | -2100000 | 3560110 | 3560110 | 3560110 | 3560110 |
NPV at 10% | $ 9,185,069.67 |
EAC for Machine A = NPV*r/(1-(1+r)^-n = 9,186,069.67*0.10/(1-1.10^-4) = $2,897,936.78
The NPV for Machine B is calculated below and then the EAC for Machine B:
Machine B | ||||||||
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
Initial Cost | -4310000 | |||||||
Sales | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | 8620000 | |
Variable costs | -2327400 | -2327400 | -2327400 | -2327400 | -2327400 | -2327400 | -2327400 | |
Fixed costs | -115000 | -115000 | -115000 | -115000 | -115000 | -115000 | -115000 | |
Depreciation | -615714 | -615714 | -615714 | -615714 | -615714 | -615714 | -615714 | |
Pre tax Income | 5561886 | 5561886 | 5561886 | 5561886 | 5561886 | 5561886 | 5561886 | |
Taxes at 35% | -1946660 | -1946660 | -1946660 | -1946660 | -1946660 | -1946660 | -1946660 | |
Net Income | 3615226 | 3615226 | 3615226 | 3615226 | 3615226 | 3615226 | 3615226 | |
Add back depreciation | 615714 | 615714 | 615714 | 615714 | 615714 | 615714 | 615714 | |
Free cash flow | -4310000 | 4230940 | 4230940 | 4230940 | 4230940 | 4230940 | 4230940 | 4230940 |
NPV at 10% | $ 16,287,987.91 |
EAC for Machine B = NPV*r/(1-(1+r)^-n = 16,287,987.91*0.10/(1-1.10^-7) = $3,345,642.30
Question 2:
As per CAPM, expected return Er = rf + beta*(Rm-Rf)
Er =18, rm =14 and beta = 1.4. We have to calculate rf (risk free return). So plugging in the above equation, we have,
18=rf +1.4*(14-rf)
18 = rf + 19.6 -1.4rf
1.6 = 0.4rf
rf = 1.6/0.4 =4%
Risk free rate =4%