In: Accounting
(2) Consider an asset that is 3 years old and has a remaining physical life of 2 years with the following projected cash flows:
EOY Revenue Operating Cost Salvage Value
4 $1,200 $800 $300
5 $1,100 $900 $0
Assume that the asset may currently be sold for $600 and that the before tax MARR is 10%. What is the PW of keeping the asset for TWO more years? Answer is -71.08 but I don't know how to get to it
we have to compute the NPV of the keeping machine for 2 year | ||||||
i | ii | iii=i-ii | iv | v=iii*iv | ||
Year | Revenue | Cost | Net cash flow | PVIF @ 10% | Present value | |
1 | 1200 | 800 | 400 | 0.9091 | 363.64 | |
2 | 1100 | 900 | 200 | 0.8265 | 165.29 | |
A | Present value of cash flow = | 528.92 | ||||
B | Present value of cash outlow flow = | 600 | ||||
C | NPV = | PV of cash inflow - PV of cash outflow | (71.08) | |||
Answer = | (71.08) | |||||