In: Physics
How does it make sense to vary the position and the velocity independently?
Edit:
Velocity is the derivative of position, so how can you treat them as independent variables? Doesn't every physics student ask this question when he learns calculus of variations? Does anybody ever answer this question? Ever? If so, please educate me.
Here is my answer, which is basically an expanded version of Greg Graviton's answer.
The question of why one can treat position and velocity as
independent variables arises in the definition of the
Lagrangian L itself, before one thinks about
varying the action
, and has therefore nothing to do with calculus of
variation.
I) On one hand, let us first consider the role of the
Lagrangian. Let there be given an arbitrary but fixed instant of
time
. The (instantaneous) Lagrangian
is a function of both the instantaneous position
and the
instantaneous velocity
at the instant
t0. Here
and
are independent variables. Note that the (instantaneous)
Lagrangian
does not depend on the past
nor the future
. (One may object
that the velocity profile
is the derivative of the position profile
so how can
and
be truly independent variables? The point is that since the
equation of motion is of 2nd order, one is still entitled to make 2
independent choices of initial conditions: 1 initial
position and 1 initial velocity.) We can repeat this argument for
any other instant
II) On the other hand, let us consider calculus of variation.
The action functional
depends on the whole (perhaps virtual) path
.
Here the time derivative
does depend on the function
. Extremizing the action functional
with appropriate boundary conditions leads to Euler-Lagrange equation,
III) Note that
is a total time derivative, not an explicit
time derivative
, so that the Euler-Lagrange equation (2) is really a 2nd-order
ordinary differential equation (ODE),
To solve for the path
, one should specify two initial conditions, e.g.,
and