In: Finance
Assume a bank’s assets are as follows:
Asset |
Book value |
Weight |
Residual mortgage loans |
200 million |
50% |
Treasury bills |
100 million |
0% |
Commercial loans |
200 million |
100% |
Total |
500 million |
The minimum capital requirement is as follows:
Tier I should be greater than 4% of the total book value.
Tier I + Tier II capital should be greater than 8% of the risk weighted assets.
1. Assume the bank’s Tier I capital is 20 million and Tier II capital is 5 million. Does the bank meet the capital standards? Yes or No
2. Assume the bank’s Tier I capital is 15 million and Tier II capital is 5 million. If the bank sells 100 million in commercial loans will the capital standards be met? Yes or No
Given that the minimum capital requirements of bank as:
Tier I capital should be greater than 4% of the total book value.
Tier I + Tier II capital should be greater than 8% of risk weighted assets.
Total Book value of assets from the given data = 500 million
Total Risk wighted assets from the given data = 50% of 200 million + 100% of 200 million
= 300 million
Tier II capital = 5 million
Calculate Tier I capital as per requirement = 4% of book value
= 4% of 500 million
= 20 million
Calculate Tier I+Tier II capital as per requirement = 8% of risk weighted assets
= 8% of 300 million
= 24 million
or we can also solve in another way
Capital adequacy ratio = Tier I capital + Tier II capital / Risk Weighted Assets
= ( 20 m + 5 m ) / 300 m
= 8.33%.
The minimum capital requirement of Tier I capital (20 million) was not greater than 4% of book value (20 million)
even the Tier I + Tier II capital requirements ( 20+5 = 25 million) was fulfilled which is greater than 8% of risk weighted assets (24 million).
Therefore the bank doesn't meet the capital standards. The correct answer is No.
But the capital adequacy ratio required as per standards should be greater than 8% which was 8.33%
2. Given that the Tier I capital is 15 million and Tier II capital is 5 million
Total Book value of assets from the given data = 400 million
Total Risk wighted assets from the given data = 50% of 200 million + 100% of 100 million
= 200 million
Since the bank sells 100 million in commercial bank loan.
Calculate Tier I capital as per requirement = 4% of book value
= 4% of 400 million
= 16 million
Calculate Tier I+Tier II capital as per requirement = 8% of risk weighted assets
= 8% of 200 million
= 16 million
or we can also solve in another way
Capital adequacy ratio = Tier I capital + Tier II capital / Risk Weighted Assets
= ( 15 m + 5 m ) / 200 m
= 10.00%.
The minimum capital requirement of Tier I capital (15 million) was not greater than 4% of book value (16 million)
even the Tier I + Tier II capital requirements ( 15 +5 = 25 million) was fulfilled which is greater than 8% of risk weighted assets (16 million) of 10.00%.
Therefore the bank doesn't meet the capital standards. The correct answer is No.
But the capital adequacy ratio required as per standards should be greater than 8% and actually its was 10.00% since the bank sells 100 million in commercial bank loan.
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