In: Finance
I am financing a $1 million dollar project with equal amounts of equity and non-recourse debt (i.e., project finance). This project generates $50,000 of free cash flow to equity every period in perpetuity. The comps have an average asset beta of 0.60.
Assume a debt beta of .25, a market risk premium of 5.00%, and a risk-free rate of 2.50%. Further assume that CAPM holds. Using an iterative, project-finance-based approach for project value, which of the following is closest to your final estimate of the project's equity?
A) $400,000 |
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B) $750,000 |
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C) There is not enough information to answer the question. |
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D) $500,000 |
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E) $650,000 |
Asset beta is beta of the assets that is project beta ignoring the capital struture or you can say assuming 100% equity.
Asset beta is also known as unlevered beta.
Asset beta or Unlevered Beta = 0.60
Unlevered Beta = Equity Beta x 50% + Debt Beta x 50%
0.60 = Equity Beta x 50% + 0.25 x 50%
Equity Beta = 0.95
Using CAPM,
Cost of Debt = Risk Free Rate + Market Risk premium x beta
Cost of Debt = 2.5% + 5% x 0.25
Cost of Debt = 3.75%
Cost of Equity = Risk Free Rate + Market Risk premium x beta
Cost of Equity = 2.5% + 5% x 0.95
Cost of Equity = 7.25%
Debt invested in project = 50% of $1,000,000 = $500,000
Annual interest to be paid on debt = $500,000 x 3.75% = $18,750
Annual cashflow from project = $50,000
Annual cashflow to be paid to debt holders = $18,750
Therefore, cashflow available to equity share holders = $50,000 - $18,750 = $31,250
Value of Equity = Cashflow available to Equity Share holders / Cost of equity
Value of Equity = $31250 / 7.25% =$431,034
which is closest to option A) $400,000
Answer is option A) 400,000