In: Finance
Natsam Corporation has $264 million of excess cash. The firm has no debt and 472 million shares outstanding with a current market price of $11 per share. Natsam's board has decided to pay out this cash as a one-time dividend.
a. What is the ex-dividend price of a share in a perfect capital market?
b. If the board instead decided to use the cash to do a one-time share repurchase, in a perfect capital market, what is the price of the shares once the repurchase is complete?
c. In a perfect capital market, which policy in part (a) or (b) makes investors in the firm better off?
A. answer for part a = $11.56; answer for part b = $11; answer for part c = policy in part (a) is better
B. answer for part a = $11; answer for part b = $11; answer for part c = investors are indifferent between parts (a) and (b)
C. answer for part a = $10.44; answer for part b = $11; answer for part c = investors are indifferent between parts (a) and (b)
D. answer for part a = $10.44; answer for part b = $10.44; answer for part c = policy in part (b) is better
a)
Given, excess cash= 264 million
Number of shares = 472 million shares
Hence dividend per share= excess cash/ Number of shares= 264/472= 0.56/Share
Price before dividend = 11
Dividend paid = 0.56
Hence price after dividend = 11-0.56= 10.44
Hence answer to question a= 10.44
b)
Given excess cash =264 Million
Since the repurchase will occur at current price i.e 11 per share
hence Number of shares repurchased = 264 Million /11= 24Million
Hence the remaining shares =472 Million- 24 Million = 448 Million shares
Since the price after the repurchase shall remain the same as 11/ Share as only number of shares are reducing and tt the same price the repurchase is happening at same price
hence price after repurchase = 11
c)
Shareholders wealth before ex dividend in option a = 472 million shares * 11 per share = 5192 Million
Payment to shareholders through dividend = 0.56 per share * 472 million = 264.32 Million
price after ex dividend = 10.44
hence the shareholders wealth = 10.44 * 472 million= 4927.68
Hence total value to shareholder = Shareholders wealth + dividend pay out = 4927.68+264.32= 5192 Million
Hence the shareholders value remains same even after the dividend pay out
In question b
Value of shares before repurchase= price per share * Number of shares = 11*472= 5192 Million
Value of which shares at purchased = 264 million
Value of shares remaining = 11 per share *Share remaining
Shares remaining= 472- 24= 224 Million shares
Value of shares = 11*448= 4928 Million
Hence the value of shareholder after repurchase = repurchase amount + value of shares remaining
= 264+ 4928
=5192
Since the value of shareholders remain same in dividend and share repurchase condition
Hence the correct answer is C. answer for part a = $10.44; answer for part b = $11; answer for part c = investors are indifferent between parts (a) and (b)