In: Finance
Percent financed |
Percent financed |
Debt-to-equity |
Bond |
Before-tax |
with debt (wd) |
with equity (wc) |
ratio (D/S) |
Rating |
cost of debt |
0.10 |
0.90 |
0.10/0.90 = 0.11 |
AAA |
7.0% |
0.20 |
0.80 |
0.20/0.80 = 0.25 |
AA |
7.2 |
0.30 |
0.70 |
0.30/0.70 = 0.43 |
A |
8.0 |
0.40 |
0.60 |
0.40/0.60 = 0.67 |
BBB |
8.8 |
0.50 |
0.50 |
0.50/0.50 = 1.00 |
BB |
9.6 |
The company uses the CAPM to estimate its cost of common equity,
rs. The risk-free rate is 5% and the market risk premium
is 6%. Smith’s estimates that if it had no debt its beta would be
1.0. (Its "unlevered beta," bU, equals 1.0.) The
company's tax rate, T, is 40%.
On the basis of this information, what is Smith's optimal capital
structure, and what is the firm's cost of capital at this optimal
capital structure?
Percent financed | Percent financed | Debt-to-equity | Bond | Before-tax | Post tax | Levered beta | Ke | WACC |
with debt (wd) | with equity (wc) | ratio (D/S) | Rating | cost of debt | Cost of debt | |||
0.1 | 0.9 | 0.10/0.90 = 0.11 | AAA | 7.00% | 7%*(1-40%) = 4.20% | 1*(1+(1-40%)*0.11) = 1.07 | 5%+(1.07*6%) = 11.42 % | (0.1*4.2%)+(0.9*11.42%) = 10.70% |
0.2 | 0.8 | 0.20/0.80 = 0.25 | AA | 7.20% | 7.2%*(1-40%) = 4.32% | 1*(1+(1-40%)*0.25) = 1.15 | 5%+(1.15*6%) = 11.90% | (0.2*4.32%)+(0.8*11.9%) = 10.38% |
0.3 | 0.7 | 0.30/0.70 = 0.43 | A | 8.00% | 8%*(1-40%) = 4.80% | 1*(1+(1-40%)*0.43) = 1.26 | 5%+(1.26*6%) = 12.56% | (0.3*4.8%)+(0.7*12.56%) = 10.23% |
0.4 | 0.6 | 0.40/0.60 = 0.67 | BBB | 8.80% | 8.8%*(1-40%) = 5.28% | 1*(1+(1-40%)*0.67) = 1.40 | 5%+(1.4*6%) = 13.40% | (0.4*5.28%)+(0.6*13.4%) = 10.15% |
0.5 | 0.5 | 0.50/0.50 = 1.00 | BB | 9.60% | 9.6%*(1-40%) = 5.76% | 1*(1+(1-40%)*1) = 1.60 | 5%+(1.6*6%) = 14.60% | (0.5*5.76%)+(0.5*14.6%) = 10.18% |
Levered Beta = Unlevered Beta * [1 + (1 – Tax Rate) * (Debt / Equity)] | ||||||||
Answer : 40% debt & 60% equity is optimal capital structure with WACC 10.15% |