A married woman who has some reproductive problem makes up her mind to bear a baby...

A married woman who has some reproductive problem makes up her mind to bear a baby via Artificial insemination by her husband. On the other hand , a married woman whose husband has low sperm count makes up her mind to accept sold male and female germ cells from donors at the consent of her husband via invitro fertilization. Now, is there a moral distinction between the 2 given cases? If any where does the moral distinction specifically reside?

A married man who has relative sterilization tells hi wife to have recourse to artificial insemination by donor in order to bear a child. Meanwhile, an unmarried woman who does not want to have sexual intercourse but wants to have a child resorts to artificial insemination by her boyfriend. Is there a moral distinction between the two given cases? If any what makes the moral distinction significant?

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Expert Solution

Yes there is definitely a moral distinction between the two. In one hand, the woman who is getting artificially inseminated by her husband's sperms have no future problems or no ethical problems. But, the woman who is getting sperms from another unknown donor will face many ethical and mental issues. Why? Because, the child when grown up may want to know his or her biological father which is not possible as per policies. Moreover, the father may find it depressing that he is unable to get his baby from his own gene and may even get shock later on.

In the second case, there are two minor moral distinction between the two. In one case, if the unmarried woman stays with her bf for rest of the life, then the child will have a father. Even if they don't stay together, then also,the child will know who and where is his father.In the other case, the child born to the sterilised male and woman may want to meet his biological father and get mentally disturbed.

Nightingale answered 2 hours ago

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