In: Finance
My answer is "no".
The formula that is applicable in this case will be: Future value = present value*(1+r)^n
So $1,000 = present value*(1+r)^15
Now if present value is $500 then 1,000 should not be equal to 500*(1+r)^15. Now let 1000 = 500*(1+r)^15
Solving we get r = 4.73%. Thus r<4.73% in this case and if r<4.73% then balance will be less than $1,000.
The combination of variables that justifies my answer are:
Present value | r |
50 | <22.11% |
100 | <16.59% |
150 | <13.48% |
200 | <11.33% |
250 | <9.68% |
300 | <8.36% |
350 | <7.25% |
400 | <6.30% |
450 | <5.47% |
500 | <4.73% |