In: Finance
Consider a bond portfolio, which consists of 1,000 units each of three bonds:
Assume face value of each bond to be $ 1,000
Market value of bond A = PV (Rate, period, PMT, FV) = PV (6.5%, 6, -7% x 1000, -1000) = $ 1,024.2051
Market value of bond B = Coupon / yield = 7.5% x 1000 / 6% = $ 1,250.0000
Market value of Bond C = Face value / (1 + yield)n = 1,000 / (1 + 6.9%)5 = $ 716.3272523
Part (a)
Portfolio comprises of 1,000 units of each of the three bonds.
hence, market value of the portfolio = 1000 x ( 1,024.2051 + 1,250.00 + 716.3272523) = $ 2,990,532.32
Part (b)
For Bond A:
Year | Cash flows | PV of Ct | t x Pvt |
t | Ct | PVt = Ct / (1 + 6.5%)^t | |
1 | 70 | 65.73 | 65.73 |
2 | 70 | 61.72 | 123.43 |
3 | 70 | 57.95 | 173.85 |
4 | 70 | 54.41 | 217.65 |
5 | 70 | 51.09 | 255.46 |
6 | 1070 | 733.31 | 4,399.85 |
Total | 1,024.21 | 5,235.96 |
Duration = 5,235.96 / 1,024.21 = 5.11 years
Modified duration = Duration / (1 + yield) = 5.11 / (1 + 6.5%) = 4.80
Modified duration of Bond B = Modified duration of a perpetuity = 1 / yield = 1 / 6% = 16.67
Modified duration of a zero coupon bond = Years to maturity / (1 + yield) = 5 / (1 + 6.%) = 4.68
Hence, modified duration of the portfolio = 9.73 as shown below.
Bond | Market Value | Number | Value in portfolio | Proportion | Modified duration | Proportion x Modified duration |
A | 1,024.21 | 1,000 | 1,024,205 | 34.25% | 4.80 | 1.64 |
B | 1,250.00 | 1,000 | 1,250,000 | 41.80% | 16.67 | 6.97 |
C | 716.33 | 1,000 | 716,327 | 23.95% | 4.68 | 1.12 |
Total | 2,990,532 | 9.73 |
Part (c)
60 basis points = 60 / 100 = 0.6%
%age change in value = -%age change in interest rate x Modified duration = - 0.6% x 9.73 = -5.84%
Hence, the new market value of the portfolio if interest rates were to increase by 60 basis points across board? (use modified duration approach) = 2,990,532 x (1 - 5.84%) = $ 2,815,931
Part (d)
Suggest a portfolio adjustment the manager can use to mitigate the portfolio’s exposure to the yield increase.