In: Finance
A pension fund manager is considering three mutual funds. The first is a stock fund, the second is a long-term government and corporate bond fund, and the third is a T-bill money market fund that yields a sure rate of 5.5%. The probability distributions of the risky funds are:
Expected Return |
Standard Deviation |
|
Stock fund (S) |
15% |
32% |
Bond fund (B) |
9 |
23 |
The correlation between the fund returns is .15.
Tabulate and draw the investment opportunity set of the two risky funds. Use investment proportions for the stock fund of 0% to 100% in increments of 20%. What expected return and standard deviation does your graph show for the minimum-variance portfolio? Draw a tangent from the risk-free rate to the opportunity set. |
First let us tabulate the required information:
Fund | EXPECTED RETURN | STANDARD DEVIATION | ||
S | 15.00% | 32.00% | ||
B | 9.00% | 23.00% | ||
PORTFOLIO | WEIGHT OF S | WEIGHT OF B | WEIGHTED PORTFOLIO RETURN | WEIGHTED PORTFOLIO STANDARD DEVIATION |
1 | 0.000% | 100.000% | 9.000% | 23.000% |
2 | 20.000% | 80.000% | 10.200% | 20.368% |
3 | 40.000% | 60.000% | 11.400% | 20.181% |
4 | 60.000% | 40.000% | 12.600% | 22.500% |
5 | 80.000% | 20.000% | 13.800% | 26.680% |
6 | 100.000% | 0.000% | 15.000% | 32.000% |
We can see from the above table that the standard deviation goes on decreasing till portfolio 3 when it is 20.181% at expected return of 11.400% and then starts to increase from there so portfolio 3 is the minimum variance portfolio