Question

70. You've noticed that your client's right scapula wings while he performs the lowering phase of a push-up. Which of the following correctives would most likely benefit him?

1. Upper trapezius stretch
2. Posterior stability hold with head rotation
3. Hip hinge with mini-band
4. Plank roll

71. The downward dog corrective has been helping your client improve his dumbbell shoulder press technique. Over the weekend he strained his right wrist and it still bothers him. Which of the following steps should you take?

1. Have him attempt the downward dog and rate his wrist pain on a scale of 1-10
2. Choose a completely different corrective
3. Perform the downward dog with his elbows resting on the floor
4. None of the above

72. Research demonstrates a link between weak hip abductors and which of the following?

1. Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS)
2. Strong hip flexion strength
3. Poor hip extension strength
4. None of the above

73. When your client performs the sphinx with reach exercise, why is it important to avoid a shoulder shrug in the support arm?

1. To minimize serratus anterior activation
2. To increase activation of the abdominals
3. To maximize serratus anterior activation
4. To increase activation of the upper trapezius

74. When your client performs the scapular activation drill with the arm held at an upward angle, which of the following positions is most appropriate?

1. A shoulder position far from a position of pain
2. A shoulder position at the first point of pain
3. A shoulder position at the maximum pain point
4. A shoulder position just short of pain

75. Why is it important to avoid telling your client that you're performing a postural assessment?

1. He/she will inevitably stand with better posture than normal
2. He/she will feel embarrassed and will not want to improve posture
3. To protect yourself against a lawsuit
4. None of the above

76. During a sagittal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client stands with his knees slightly flexed. Which of the following does that indicate?

1. His hamstrings are overly active
2. His hip flexors are inhibited
3. He has sufficient glute strength
4. He is a quad dominant person

77. During a frontal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client's left shoulder appears to be elevated/shrugged at rest. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective?

1. Stretch for the left rhomboids
2. Stretch for the left upper trapezius
3. Stretch for the right pectoralis minor
4. Stretch for the left pectoralis

78. A client that demonstrates upper crossed syndrome typically has weakness in which of the following muscle groups?

1. Levator scapulae
2. Upper trapezius
3. Deep neck flexors
4. Pectorals

79. Which of the following negative effects can occur if your client performs a stretch or lacrosse ball mobilization drill while being stressed and in a heightened state of pain?

1. It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation
2. It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation
3. It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation
4. It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation

80. Stiff suboccipital muscles can impair which of the following cervical movements?

1. Cervical extension
2. Cervical rotation
3. Cervical flexion
4. Both B and C

81. The overhead reach is recommended as one way to assess your client's shoulder function for which of the following reasons?

1. It's one of the least challenging movements for the shoulder complex
2. It doesn't require activation of the deltoid muscle
3. It's one of the most challenging movements for the shoulder complex
4. None of the above

82. If the chin tuck with lacrosse ball loosened the suboccipital muscles, which of the following cervical movements should have a greater range of motion?

1. Cervical rotation
2. Cervical flexion
3. Cervical extension
4. Both A and B

83. Research demonstrates that activating the deep neck flexors can produce which of the following benefits?

1. Less pain in the shoulders
2. Less pain in the neck
3. Less pain in the low back
4. Both A and B

84. Which of the following is a hypothesized benefit of foam roller exercises?

1. Increased overlap of the sarcomeres within muscle
2. Restored water balance in the muscles and fascia
3. Significant reduction in scar tissue
4. Increased protective tension in fascial tissues

85. What is the purpose of performing the t-spine rotation drill from the quadruped position with one supporting arm on the ground?

1. To promote activation of the pectoralis muscle in the supporting arm
2. To minimize t-spine extension
3. To promote activation of the serratus anterior in the supporting arm
4. To promote lumbar flexion

86. Your client was able to improve his exercise technique through the cues you gave him, without any change in load. This indicates an improvement in which of the following?

1. Strength
2. Mobility
3. Motor control
4. None of the above

87. Which muscles are typically overactive in the lower crossed syndrome that was described by Prof. Janda?

1. Hip flexors/thoracolumbar extensors
2. Hip extensors/hip flexors
3. Hip flexors/thoracolumbar flexors
4. Hip extensors/thoracolumbar extensors

88. Which of the following is a position your client should avoid while performing the cat-camel exercise?

1. Lumbar flexion
2. Posterior pelvic tilt
3. Lumbar extension
4. An extreme end-range of motion stretch

89. During the modified Thomas Test assessment for your client's right hip, she demonstrates hip abduction in the resting position. Which of the following does this indicate?

1. Excessive length of the right tensor fascia latae
2. Excessive length of the right iliopsoas
3. Shortening/stiffness of the right tensor fascia latae
4. Shortening/stiffness of the right rectus femoris

90. Which muscle group is the hip thrust exercise intended to strengthen?

1. Peroneals
2. Glutes
3. Hip flexors
4. Abdominals

91. Research demonstrates a relationship between knee pain and which of the following?

1. Strong hip abductors
2. Weak abdominals
3. Stiff hamstrings
4. Weak hip abductors

92. Knee valgus is commonly associated with which of the following compensations?

1. Excessive pronation of the feet
2. Weak abdominals
3. Stiff hamstrings
4. Weak hip abductors

93. Your client, William, sits for many hours each day at his computer. Which of the following compensations are you likely to observe?

1. Posterior pelvic tilt
2. Shortened hip flexors
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

94. Your client is a professional basketball player with a 40" vertical jump and he experiences no low back or knee pain. You assess his hamstring mobility at the popliteal angle and determine that it's less than normal. What should you do?

1. Recommend exercises to strengthen his hip flexors
2. Leave his hamstrings alone
3. Recommend static stretches for his hamstrings
4. None of the above

95. During a sagittal plane postural assessment you observe anteriorly rotated shoulders. Which of the following correctives is most likely to benefit the client?

1. Stretches for the middle trapezius
2. Strengthening exercises for the pectorals
3. Stretches for the rhomboids
4. Stretches for the pectorals

96. When your client lacks dorsiflexion, which of the following compensations is common to observe during a squat?

1. Poor hip extension
2. Knee valgus
3. Excessive anterior trunk shift
4. Excessive lumbar lordosis

97. Maximal contraction of the hip extensors results in relaxation of the hip flexors. This is an example of what neural arrangement?

1. Reciprocal innervation
2. Stretch reflex
3. Reciprocal activation
4. None of the above

98. Activating the hip abductors has been shown to increase mobility of which of the following muscle groups?

1. Lats
2. Abdominals
3. Calves
4. Hamstrings

99. Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS) is caused by which of the following?

1. Strong hip extensors
2. Stiff hamstrings
3. An overuse injury of the IT band
4. Excessive strength of the hip abductors

100. What is the optimal depth you should train your client to squat from without pain?

1. The depth required for the client's life or sport
2. A half squat since anything lower isn't necessary
3. The height of a standard chair
4. A full squat where the hamstrings touch the calves

Answer 1

70.upper trapezius stretch will help the client as winging of scapula weakens trapezius muscle therefore stretching will help in restoring its function.

71- perform the downward dog with elbows resting on the floor as it takes the weight off the wrists and provide the rest of the benefits of the stretch

72-iliotibial band syndrome

73-to increase action of abdominals

75- he/she will inevitably stand with better position than normal

76-his hamstrings are over working as hamstrings flex the knee and extends the hip

77-stretch for the left upper trapezius as trapezius is the muscle that is involved in shrugging

79-it can engage sympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation

78-levator scapulae and trapezius muscles weakness causes upper crossed syndrome usually due to poor posture

80-both b and c

81-it's one of the most challenging movement for shoulder complex

82- both a and b

83-less pain in the neck as the deep flexor muscle activation stabilises the neck

84-increased protective tension in fascial tissues

86- mobility

87-hip flexors and thoracolumbar extensors

88-posterior pelvic tilt

89-stiffness or shorteining of the right tensor fascia latae

90-glutes

91-weak hip abductors

92-excessive pronation of foot

95- stretches for pectorals

97-reciprocal innervation

98-abdominals

99-an overuse injury of IT band

100-the height of a standard chair