In: Economics
If a monopoly faces an inverse demand curve of
pequals=330330minus−Q,
has a constant marginal and average cost of
$9090,
and can perfectly price discriminate, what is its profit? What are the consumer surplus, welfare, and deadweightloss? How would these results change if the firm were a single-price monopoly?
Profit from perfect price discrimination
(piπ)
is
$nothing.
(Enter your response as a whole number.)
If a monopoly faces an inverse demand curve of p = 330 − Q, has a constant marginal and average cost of
$90,and can perfectly price discriminate, what is its profit? What are the consumer surplus, welfare, and
deadweight loss? How would these results change if the firm were a single-price monopoly?
Single price monopolist
Demand function is P = 330 - Q so MR = 330 - 2Q. MC = 90 so single price monopolist produces where MR =
MC or 330 - 2Q = 90. This gives Q = 240/2 = 120 units and price P = 330 - 120 = $210 per unit.
Consumer surplus = 0.5*(330 - 210)*120 = $7200.
Profit = (210 - 90)*120 = 14400.
DWL = 0.5*(210 - 90)*120 = 7200.
Perfect price discrimination monopolist
Demand function is P = 330 - Q. MC = 90 so perfect price discrimination monopolist produces where P =
MC or 330 - Q = 90. This gives Q = 240 units.
Consumer surplus = 0 because all the consumer surplus is extracted by the seller.
Profit = 0.5*(330 - 90)*240 = $28800
DWL = 0
Hence we see that profits are higher by $14400, CS is reduced by $7200 and deadweight loss is also reduced by $7200 when there is a perfect price discrimination monopolist.