In: Finance
If the simple CAPM is valid and all portfolios are priced correctly, which of the situations below is possible? Consider each situation independently, and assume the risk-free rate is 5%.
A)
Portfolio |
Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 12 | % | 1.2 | |||
Market | 12 | % | 1.0 | |||
B)
Portfolio |
Expected Return |
Standard Deviation |
||||
A | 15 | % | 12 | % | ||
Market | 10 | % | 20 | % | ||
C)
Portfolio |
Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 15 | % | 1.2 | |||
Market | 10 | % | 1.0 | |||
D)
Portfolio |
Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 19.0 | % | 2.0 | |||
Market | 12 | % | 1.0 |
Solution :-
Risk Free Rate = 5%
(A) Market Return = 12%
Beta of Stock = 1.20
Now Fair return of stock = Rf + Beta * ( Rm - Rf )
= 5% + 1.20 * ( 12% - 5% )
= 13.4%
Expected Return = 12%
As Fair Return > Expected Return Stock is Over Priced
(B) Here in this Part the data As per CAPM not given so we use Coefficient of variation that is
Standard deviation / Avg Return
Stock = 12 / 15 = 0.80
Market = 20 / 10 = 2
It means there is less risk in stock means under priced
(C)
Market Return = 10%
Beta of Stock = 1.20
Now Fair return of stock = Rf + Beta * ( Rm - Rf )
= 5% + 1.20 * ( 10% - 5% )
= 11%
Expected Return = 15%
As Fair Return < Expected Return Stock is Under Priced
(D)
Market Return = 12%
Beta of Stock = 2.0
Now Fair return of stock = Rf + Beta * ( Rm - Rf )
= 5% + 2.0 * ( 12% - 5% )
= 19%
Expected Return = 19%
As Fair Return = Expected Return
Stock is Correctly Valued
Therefore the correct Answer is (D)
In this case the Simple CAPM is valid and all portfolios are priced correctly.
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