Question

    Basic Pharmacology     Final Examination

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE.

_____1. The clinical effectiveness of a drug majorly depends on:  a. Clearance b. Potency  c. Affinity to receptors  d. Half-life  

_____2. Parasympathetic effect of halting or stopping the sympathetic effects in the body is an example of this type of antagonism  a. Competitive  b. Functional  c. Physiologic  d. Non competitive

_____3. This is the initial dose given to the patient to achieve therapeutic level/range rapidly. a. Loading dose  b. Maintenance dose  c. Maximum daily dose  d. Increasing dose  

_____4. A drug that does not produce maximal effect even when all the receptors are occupied is a:  a. Full agonist  b. Partial agonist  c. Weak agonist  d. Antagonist  

_____5. A drug that produces maximal effects even when only some of the receptors are occupied a. Partial agonist b. Weak agonist c. Strong agonist d. Partial antagonist

Philippine Rehabilitation Institute Foundation, PRI College of Sciences

_____6. Ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in the blood. a. Bioavailability b. Clearance c. Volume of distribution d. Metabolism

_____7. Ratio of the amount of a drug in the body to its concentration in the blood. a. Bioavailability b. Clearance  c. Volume of distribution  d. Excretion

_____8. For a drug with high first pass effect, which of the following dosage forms should be avoided?  a. Oral tablet  b. Sublingual tablet  c. Transdermal preparation  d. Rectal suppository  

_____9. Drug X has an elimination half life of 80 hours and oral bioavailability of 100%. After oral administration, the steady state concentration is expected to be attained in:  a. 8 days  b. 4 days  c. 10 days  d. 14 days

_____10. Time it takes a drug to begin working a. Duration b. Onset c. Rate of absorption d. Half life   _____11. This is a type of drug metabolism wherein the drug is reduced or oxidized through the use of a polar group.  a. Phase I reaction b. Phase II reaction c. Phase III reaction d. Liver microsomal drug oxidation/reduction

_____12. This is a type III AED.  a. Phenytoin  b. Phenobarbital  c. Ethosuximide  d. Valproic acid

  

_____13. These are all direct sympathomimetic non catecholamines except: a. Phenylephrine b. Albuterol c. Terbutaline d. Dopamine

_____14. These are all direct sympathomimetic catecholamines except: a. Phenylephrine b. Epinephrine c. Dobutamine d. Dopamine

_____15. Which anti Parkinson drug is used as an adjunct to Levodopa a. Bromocriptine b. Carbidopa c. Amantadine d. Pergolide

_____16. This type of AED acts on the body through reduction of Na+ current. a. Type I AED b. Type II AED c. Type III AED d. Type IV AED

_____17. This type of AED acts on the body through enhancing post-synaptic GABA receptor current, usefulness is limited by sedation and development of tolerance a. Type I AED b. Type II AED c. Type III AED d. Type IV AED

_____18. This drug used for treating hypertension acts by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a vasoconstrictor. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. calcium channel blocker c. ACEi d. digitalis

_____19. This drug used in treating angina acts by dilating the blood vessel. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. nitroglycerin c. calcium channel blocker d. ACEi

  

_____20. This is a cardiac glycoside which affects the electrical and mechanical actions of the heart which increases contractility. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. calcium channel blocker c. digitalis d. ACEi

_____21. One of the primary goals in treating myocardial infarct is: a. reducing the work load of heart b. dilate the blood vessels c. decreasing HR and contractility of the heart d. reperfusing ischemic tissue.

_____22. This drug contributes in treating heart failure by reducing blood volume. a. beta adrenergic blockers b. calcium channel blocker c. digitalis d. diuretics

_____23. This type of diuretic primarily reabsorbs sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle and proximal and distal tubules. a. Mannitol b. Loop diuretics c. Thiazide diuretics d. K+ sparing diuretics

_____24. This drug has better bioavailability compared to gabapentin  a. Tizidine  b. Lorazepam  c. Baclofen  d. Pregabalin

_____25. This is the first line drug for acute gout  a. Corticosteroids  b. Chloroquine  c. NSAIDs  d. Coxibs  

_____26. This has the very little anti inflammatory effect or none at all.  a. Coxibs  b. Acetaminophen  c. ASA  d. t-NSAIDs

  

_____27. This drug inhibits xanthine oxidase in the use for acute gout  a. Probenecid  b. Sulfinpyrazone  c. Allopurinol  d. t-NSAIDs  

_____28. This drug weakly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 causing poor anti-inflammatory effect.  a. t-NSAIDs  b. acetaminophen  c. corticosteroids  d. DMARDs  

_____29. This traditional NSAID may also be used for the closure of a patent ductus arteriosus. a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c. indomethacin d. naproxen

_____30. This traditional NSAID may also be used for moderate to severe pain and as an alternative for opioid therapy a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c. indomethacin d. naproxen  _____31. This traditional NSAID has no clear advantage over other NSAIDs and frequently causes GIT symptoms a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c. indomethacin d. naproxen

_____32. This drug is COX 2 selective. a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c. indomethacin d. celecoxib    

_____33. This drug is a cardio protective agent and used as a maintenance drug. a. mefenamic acid b. paracetamol c. aspirin d. celecoxib

_____34. All of the following are true regarding the extent of absorption except: a. site of administration b. potency c. clinical effectiveness d. bioavailability

_____35. The steady state is reached after: a. 2 to 3 half lives b. 3 to 4 half lives c. 4 to 5 half lives d. 5 to 6 half lives

_____36. This phase in drug elimination uses a polar group a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV

_____37. The process in which the drug is reabsorbed from the liver circulation is called a. Bioavailability b. First pass effect c. Enterohepatic circulation d. Recirculation

_____38. All are included in the components of drug receptor interaction except: a. Receptors largely determine the quantitative relations between dose of drug and pharmacologic effects.  b. Receptors are responsible for selectivity of drug action. c. Receptors mediate the actions of both pharmacologic agonists and antagonists. d. Receptors mediates the process of bioavailability

______39. The process wherein the drug competes with the normal substrate or coenzyme so that a new equilibrium is achieved in the presence of the drug is called a. Specific competitive equilibrium b. Non specific competitive equilibrium c. Specific non competitive equilibrium d. Specific competitive non equilibrium

______40. All are included in the process of receptor signalling except a. Recognition of signal by receptors b. Transduction of message c. Transmission of second messenger d. Modulation of receptors

______41. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of the other is a type of drug interaction. a. Addition b. Synergism c. Potentiation d. Antagonist

______42. A drug which causes minimal effects even if all receptors are occupied is called a. Strong agonist b. Weak agonist c. Partial agonist d. Antagonist

______43. This inhibit or block responses caused by agonists a. Strong agonist b. Weak agonist c. Partial agonist d. Antagonist

______44. This occurs when a patient needs a drug to function normally a. Tolerance b. Dependence c. Withdrawal d. Addiction

______45. When the beta adrenergic 1 receptor is stimulated, this is not elicited a. Increase HR b. Increase BP c. Decrease contractility d. Increase inotropicity

Answer 1

2. Parasympathetic effect of halting or stopping the sympathetic effects in the body is an example of this type of antagonism c. Physiologic

3. This is the initial dose given to the patient to achieve therapeutic level/range rapidly. a. Loading dose

4. A drug that does not produce maximal effect even when all the receptors are occupied is a: b. Partial agonist

5. A drug that produces maximal effects even when only some of the receptors are occupied c. Strong agonist

6. Ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in the blood. b. Clearance

7. Ratio of the amount of a drug in the body to its concentration in the blood. a. Bioavailability