If we rename y=x^2, f(x)=x^2, could we rename the inverse f^-1(x)? Explain your answer

Expert Solution

Answer is yes, we can rename it y=g(x) and f^(-1)=g(x).

Colby Messinger answered 2 years ago

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If we rename y=x^2, f(x)=x^2, could we rename the inverse f^-1(x)? Explain your answer

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