In: Finance
You are a CFO considering the impact that you could have on your firm if you could lower your WACC. You would like to lower your WACC by 20% of its current level. You currently have 30% debt in your capital structure with a before-tax cost of 8.5% and a beta of 0.25, and an equity cost of 15.64%. The risk-free rate is 5% and your current equity beta is 0.76. Your firm has invested in three projects, with 30% in project 1 (beta of 1.1), 30% in project 2 (beta of 0.8), and 40% in project 3 (beta of 0.2175). The tax rate is 40%. If you increase the debt in your capital structure to 90%, will you have met your goal of lowering your WACC? Show all of your work (support your answer).
Current WACC= |
(Wt.d*kd*(1-Tax Rate))+(Wt.e*ke) |
ie.(30%*8.5%*(1-40%))+(70%*15.64%)= |
12.48% |
Lowering the above WACC by 20% will mean, the target WACC is |
12.48%*(1-20%)= |
9.98% |
Now, |
We will find the cost of equity at 90% debt level |
Unlevered beta=Levered beta/(1+((1-Tax rate)*Debt/Equity) |
ie. UnL Beta=0.76/(1+((1-40%)*30%/70%)= |
0.6045 |
Now the levered equity beta at 90% debt level= |
Levered bet=Unlevered beta*(1+((1-Tax rate)*Debt/Equity) |
ie.0.6045*(1+(1-40%)*90%/10%))= |
3.87 |
To find the market risk premium, |
using CAPM, |
ke=RFR=(Beta*Market Risk premium) |
15.64%=5%+(0.76*MRP) |
so, MRP=(15.64%-5%)/0.76= |
14.00% |
Now, the cost of Equity , at 90% debt level is |
ke=RFR+(Beta*MRP) |
5%+(3.87*14%)= |
59.18% |
so, the new WACC will be |
(90%*8.5%*(1-40%))+(10%*59.18%)= |
10.51% |
So the |
goal of lowering your WACC has not been met , as |
10.51% > the desired 9.98% |