In: Economics
Country A has 1400 labor units and can produce manufactures and food. A’s producers take 1 unit of labor to produce a unit of manufactures and 7 units of labor to produce a unit of food. Country B has 1500 units of labor and takes 3 units of labor to produce a unit of manufactures and 2 units to produce a unit of food. At what price in terms of manufactures would A and B respectively supply food? Would trade take place between A and B in Adam Smith’s world? How many manufactures could A supply?
In the given question, there are two countries A and B which produces manufactures and food using diifferent units of labour to produce the goods are as given below
country\good produced | Manufactures | Food |
Country A | 1 | 7 |
Country B | 3 | 2 |
country A's opportunity cost of producing manufactures is 1/7 or o.14units of food
country B's opportunity cost of producing manufacures is manufactures is3/2 or1.5units of food
Now, the one with lower opportunity cost will produce the good with greater efficiency.
hence, country A will specialise in production of manufactures.
Similarly, country A's opportunity cost of producing food is 7units of manufactures
country B's opportunity cost of producing food is 2/3 or 0.67 units of manufactures
hence, country B will specialise in production of food.
Yes trade will take place according to Adam smith's world , the country will produce that good in which it has comparative advantage and as from above country A will export manufactures for food and country B will export food for manufactures.
country A will supply manufactures as amount of labor available times its opportunity cost of production .i.e. (1/7)*14000=2000units of labour is supplied.