In: Finance
You have the following information about the James E. Briley company. Sales $225,000 Operating Expenses $50,000 Depreciation $25,000 If the company borrows money, it will borrow $50,000 at an interest rate of 11 percent, which is considered to be the risk free rate of interest. Thus, the total annual interest payments will be $5,500. When appropriate the corporate tax rate (Tc) is 34 percent, the personal taxi rate on income from bonds (Tpb) is 40 percent and the personal tax rate on income from stocks (Tps) is 28 percent. The cost of equity for the company is 14 percent. What is the gain from using debt in the capital structure if the firm is subject to pass-through taxation?
Refer below tables
Table 1 - Income statement without debt in capital structure
Table 2 - Income statement with debt in capital structure
Table 1
Description | Value |
Revenue | 225000 |
Operating expense | 50000 |
Depreciation expense | 25000 |
Operating profit | 150000 |
Income taxes @ 34% | 51000 |
Net Income | 99000 |
Table 2
Description | Value |
Revenue | 225000 |
Operating expense | 50000 |
Depreciation expense | 25000 |
Operating profit | 150000 |
Interest expense | 5500 |
Income before tax | 144500 |
Income tax @ 34% | 49130 |
Net Income | 95370 |
Now formula for free cash flow to firm ( FCFF) = Net income + depreciation + Interest x ( 1-tax) - fixed capital investment - working capital
In example given fixed capital investment and working capital are not given , hence same are assumed to be 0
FCFF for table 1 ( i.e. without debt ) = 99000 + 25000 = 124000
FCFF for table 2 (i.e. with debt) = 95370 +25000 + 5500*(1 - 0.34) = 124000
As we see free cash flow to firm (FCFF) in both cases is same therefor there is no net gain or loss
Hence answer to this question is D