In: Physics
Ratio |
pafter/pbefore |
0.89808 |
0.94833 |
0.88944 |
above is inelastic collision data--> it is the ratio of the total momentum of a system after an inelastic collision to the total momentum of a system before the inelastic collision.
How does the total momentum of the system after the collision compare to that before the collision? Is the agreement in these inelastic collisions as good as that in the elastic collisions? Try to account for any differences.
for the elastic data, the ratio of the momentum for after and before the collision is:
0.68463 |
0.67813 |
0.62543 |
0.60111 |
0.49616 |
0.53989 |
with each box representing each trial out of 6 trials.
Why is the elastic collision momentum ratio less close to 1 than the inelastic collision momentum ratios? wouldn't the elastic collision ratios be closer to 1 than inelastic?
Q. How does the total momentum of the system after the collision compare to that before the collision?
Ans. Total momentum of the system after the collision decreases as compared to that before the collision i.e. Pf < Pi
Q. Is the agreement in these inelastic collisions as good as that in the elastic collisions? Try to account for any differences.
Ans. The ratio in inelastic collision is quite close to 1 which is as good as ideal elastic collisions whose momentum ratio Pf /Pi is =1.
Q. Why is the elastic collision momentum ratio less close to 1 than the inelastic collision momentum ratios?
Ans. Elastic collision momentum ratio is less close to 1 than the inelastic collision momentum ratio because much of the energy is lost in heat, sound or energy lost in internal molecules of object.
Q. Wouldn't the elastic collision ratios be closer to 1 than inelastic?
Ans. Yes, in ideal conditions elastic collision ratios should be 1 as compared to inelastic.