Please write down your response after reading the paragraph. (At least 5 sentences long. 150-200 words)
The idea of a driverless car in our modern day and age at first sounds very pleasant, if one does not think too hard about it. Much like how Iyad Rahwan mentions in his TED talk, about 1.6 million people die every year in traffic accidents, and oftentimes because of human error. If human error was taken away, wouldn’t this drastically decrease the number of accidents occurring? However, there are many ethical dilemmas that one must consider: should you allow your car to decide that it should kill you if it were to save five pedestrians as a result? There are an infinite number of factors that could change your answer immediately: what if you were driving with a family member or your significant other on the passenger seat? What if swerving meant running into an unsuspecting mother with a baby carriage? Like Rahwan mentioned, would society even allow driverless cars with such risks, however small? With everyone having different opinions on the risks they’re willing to take, I believe society as a whole will never be able to come to a complete consensus on such a matter. However, I do think that most would avoid driverless cars as a result to avoid such a situation.
Personally, I believe in Bentham’s view of the situation; minimizing harm by choosing to kill one life over five others. However, Kant’s belief that you should allow the car to take its course is also a very valid argument. Who are we to choose who lives and who dies in a society in which one believes every human being is created equal? In addition, if one of my family members was with me in the car, and crashing would put their lives at risk, would I be willing to make that sacrifice just to save five people that I don’t know? As such, this is a very difficult ethical dilemma to consider.
In: Psychology
6. The p53 tumor suppressor gene was isolated from a tumor where p53 protein levels were very high. This was likely due to dominant-acting mutant that inactivated all p53 tetramers and blocked the tumor suppressing effects of wild type p53. A) True B) False
7. Increased gene expression from the Ink4A locus leads to inhibition of cyclin E-CDK2. A) True B) False
8. In colon cancer progression, the first driver mutation is commonly a mutation to the KRas gene. A) True B) False
9. Metabolic reprogramming in KRas-driven cancer cells involves glutaminolysis whereby glutamine is deamidated by glutaminase to glutamate, which is then deaminated by glutamate dehydrogenase to -ketoglutarate and NH4+. -ketoglutarate can then continue through the TCA cycle to citrate and exit the mitochondria where acetyl-CoA is regenerated for fatty acid synthesis. A) True B) False
10. 2-hydroxy-glutarate (2-HD) made by mutant TCA cycle enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) was considered an ”oncometabolite” because it prevented VHL ubiquitination of HIF. A) True B) False
In: Biology
Sanger sequencing uses dideoxyribonucleotides because
a)They prevent the incorporation of subsequent DNA nucleotides
b)DNA polymerase will not utilize them during replication
c)They work more efficiently at high temperatures
question2
Which of the following is a palindromic sequence capable of being recognized by a restriction enzyme?
Group of answer choices
a)5’- ATGGTA -3’
b.5’- GCTAGC -3’
c.5’- CGCGAG -3’
d.5’- TACGAT -3’
question 3
What is the main difference between benign and malignant tumors?
Group of answer choices
a.Benign tumors can metastasize, while malignant tumors cannot
b.Malignant tumors can metastasize, while benign tumors cannot
c.Both benign and malignant tumors behave identically
question 4
In order to cause phenotypic change at a cellular level, only 1 allele of a tumor supressor gene needs to be inactivated
Group of answer choices
True
False
Benign tumors are caused by DNA mutation, while malignant tumors are not
Malignant tumors are caused by DNA mutation, while benign tumors are not
In: Biology
The inflammation of a tendon or its attachment point due to overuse of the muscle is known as ______. A compound which accumulates in muscle fibers where it stores energy that can be used to synthesize ATP is known as ______. Skeletal muscle fibers develop from cells called ______. The ilopsoas muscle, a combination of the iliacus and psoas major muscles, are important because they function as ______. The enzyme which removes and recycles the neurotransmitter from the receptors of Na+ gated ion channels on the sarcolemma is ______. The gastrocnemius joins with two other muscles, ______ and ______, to from the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon. Chemicals which cause production of action potentials in the post-synaptic membrane are called ______. A condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly as to not allow any relaxation between muscle contractions is called ______. The progressive genetic disease where muscle tissue is replaced with fibrous connective tissue is known as ______. Opposition by the thumb is accomplished by contraction of the ______ muscle. A strong band of fibrous connective tissue which covers the flexor and extensor tendons of the wrist and holds them in place is the ______. An age-associated, progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle is known as ______.
In: Anatomy and Physiology
Diversity of Bacteria
1. Proteobacteria constitute the majority of known bacteria of medical, industrial,
and agricultural significance, and as a group what is their gram stain reaction?
2. Which species of Epsilonproteobacteria is responsible for causing peptic
ulcers in humans?
3. The cytoplasmic membranes of mycoplasmas are unusual in that they contain
what, which gives them the ability to resist osmotic lysis?
4. What group of gram-positive bacteria are found in Swiss cheese?
5. What species of gram-positive bacteria with filamentous morphology
can synthesize antimicrobial metabolites?
Diversity of Archaea
6. Archaea found in hypersaline environments are know as what?
7. The archael species Halobacterium salinarum can catalyze light-driven
ATP synthesis using what protein which has a structural and functional
similarity to rhodopsin, the visual pigment of the eye?
8. What type of condition/environment is required methanogens to grow?
9. What is the highest temperature can one strain of Methanopyrus tolerate
and grow?
10. What enzyme is only found in hyperthermophiles which is responsible
for DNA stability at high temperatures?
In: Biology
15. In VNTR analysis, a conclusion that indicates “Inclusion” means which of the following: a. The profiles are different b. The profiles match c. No conclusion can be made d. The samples are from different sources
16. In RFLP profiling, DNA degradation can be detected using which of the following: a. Agarose gel electrophoresis b. Partial restriction digestion c. PCR analysis d. All of the above
17. This term refers to the deviation of the specificity of the cleavage site of a restriction enzyme: a. Point mutation b. Point degradation c. Partial stripping d. Star activity
18. In RFLP, this is caused by the substitution, deletion, or insertion of a single nucleotide a. Point mutation b. Point degradation c. Partial stripping d. Star activity
19. Which of the following loci was used by forensic DNA labs for amplified fragment length polymorphisms: a. D1S80 b. D1S99 c. T1S80 d. DS1980
20. Which of the following cases would be suitable for AFLP analysis: a. A cold case with a degraded sample b. A paternity case c. A case with mtDNA d. None of the above
In: Biology
Mesophilic organisms are organisms that prefer moderate temperatures (not too hot, not too cold). Their enzymes are similar to the potato enzymes, they work best at a range of 20-40 °C. What do you deduce is happening during the mesophilic stage? Why do the mesophilic organisms stop working at around 45°C?
2. Thermophilic organisms are organisms that survive best in hot temperatures (up to 70°C) What do you think is happening during the thermophilic stage of the compost pile?
3. Why does the curve peak (around 65°C) and not continue rising as temperature continues to increase?
4. Why do you think that, after some time, the curve begins to decline?
5. Does your data show any evidence that extreme heat has an
effect on the ability of catalase to carry out its reaction, and if
so, what is this evidence?
6. At what temperature did the potato enzyme work best?
7. What range of temperatures do you deduce are the best for potato
catalase activity?
In: Biology
3. (10pt) Your colleague professor Stu Dentgenerated a genome-wide DNA methylation map for normal colon cells using MRE-seq (a restriction enzyme approach) and MeDIP-seq(an immunoprecipitation approach). In an intergenic region, he found an interesting locus. This locus is about 20kb. On one end of the locus, there is a 2kb CpG rich stretch that has both relatively lowMRE-seq and MeDIP-seq signals. The rest 18kb has high level of MeDIP-seq signals. (A) (3pt) Why might you suspect that this region encodes for a novel gene? (B) (4pt) You decide to look at histone modification patterns across this regionfor more evidence. There are several genome-wide datasets available for this cell type: H3K4me1, H3K4me3, H3K27me3, H3K9me3, H3K36me3, and H3K9Ac. Which histone mark would youinvestigatefor this locus and why? (C) (3pt) Suggestat least one other source of data (NOT annotation or bisulfide sequencing) that may help you confirm or refute your suspicion, and why you think it may help?
In: Biology
Case history: A 36-year-old Mediterranean man presents to your clinic with increased fatigue and weakness of 2 days duration. He was recently tested for tuberculosis exposure and was PPD positive with a normal chest x-ray film. He just started anti-TB prophylaxis medications the week before. On physical exam, he is tachycardic, appears jaundiced, and has mild splenomegaly. You order blood studies, which show low hemoglobin, low hematocrit, and precipitates in RBC. You begin to suspect that this patient suffers from an X-linked recessive disorder where an enzyme is deficient which is triggered by his current TB prophylaxis, and you decide to consult an infectious disease specialist about alternative regimens that will not cause his current symptoms.
Answer the following questions with the information from the case history:
a) Name the disorder.
Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency
b) Describe the pathogenesis of the disease. Incorporate the name the precipitates in RBC and their formation in your discussion.
c) List the precipitating factors for this disease.
PLEASE ANSWER B AND C
In: Nursing
Case history: A 36-year-old Mediterranean man presents to your clinic with increased fatigue and weakness of 2 days duration. He was recently tested for tuberculosis exposure and was PPD positive with a normal chest x-ray film. He just started anti-TB prophylaxis medications the week before. On physical exam, he is tachycardic, appears jaundiced, and has mild splenomegaly. You order blood studies, which show low hemoglobin, low hematocrit, and precipitates in RBC. You begin to suspect that this patient suffers from an X-linked recessive disorder where an enzyme is deficient which is triggered by his current TB prophylaxis, and you decide to consult an infectious disease specialist about alternative regimens that will not cause his current symptoms.
Answer the following questions with the information from the case history:
a) Name the disorder.
Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency
b) Describe the pathogenesis of the disease. Incorporate the name the precipitates in RBC and their formation in your discussion.
c) List the precipitating factors for this disease.
PLEASE ANSWER B AND C
In: Nursing