The perceived pitch of a sound depends on ________________.
| a. |
which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves |
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| b. |
which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid |
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| c. |
which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion |
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| d. |
whether or not the sound moves ine incus, malleus and stapes |
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| e. |
whether or not the listener has had training in music |
Ovoviviparous species are distinguished by what trait?
| a. |
Offspring are nourished via a placenta prior to live birth. |
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| b. |
Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk and then hatch from eggs |
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| c. |
Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk prior to live birth |
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| d. |
Offspring receive nourishment from the male parent |
Put the steps of contraction of the heart in the correct order
I. Contraction of the ventricles
II. Signal transmitted from the SA node
III. Contraction of the atria
IV. Delay at the AV node
| a. |
IV, I, III, II |
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| b. |
I, II, III, IV |
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| c. |
II, III, IV, I |
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| d. |
III, I, IV, II |
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| e. |
None of the above are correct. |
What is the correct order of processes involving the movement of oxygen from the environment to mitochondria in vertebrates?
| a. |
ventilation, circulation, cellular respiration |
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| b. |
circulation, ventilation, cellular respiration |
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| c. |
diffusion in tissues, cellular respiration, diffusion at respiratory surface |
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| d. |
ventilation, diffusion in tissues, circulation |
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| e. |
circulation, cellular respiration, diffusion in tissues |
Diarrhea occurs when inadequate water absorption occurs from the digestive system. Which region of the digestive tract is most greatly affected in patients with diarrhea?
| a. |
esophagus |
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| b. |
stomach |
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| c. |
small intestine |
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| d. |
large intestine |
Innate immunity __________________________.
| a. |
is activated immediately upon infection |
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| b. |
depends on an infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen |
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| c. |
is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens |
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| d. |
is found only in vertebrate animals |
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| e. |
utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells |
Sharks are UNLIKE most ocean fishes in what way(s)?
i. The concentration of Na+, K+ and Cl- ions in shark tissues is the same as the concentration of these ions in seawater.
ii. Sharks are isotonic to seawater
iii. Sharks have cells specialized to secrete salts
| a. |
None of the above are correct. |
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| b. |
Exactly ONE of the above is correct. |
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| c. |
Exactly TWO of the above are correct. |
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| d. |
All of the above are correct. |
The ampullae of Lorenzini in sharks are used for ________________.
| a. |
thermoreception |
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| b. |
electroreception |
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| c. |
photoreception |
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| d. |
magnetoreception |
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| e. |
mechanoreception |
What is the partial pressure of oxygen at an atmospheric pressure of 600 mm Hg?
| a. |
63 mm Hg |
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| b. |
126 mm Hg |
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| c. |
252 mm Hg |
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| d. |
600 mm Hg |
What can the mouthparts of an animal tell you about its diet?
i. Mouthparts provide clues about the type of digestion that goes on in the stomach
ii. Mouthparts provide clues about the specific foods an animal pursues.
iii Mouthparts provide clues about the rate of nutrient absorption.
| a. |
None of the above are correct |
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| b. |
Exactly ONE of the above is correct. |
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| c. |
Exactly TWO of the above are correct |
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| d. |
All of the above are correct |
Which of the four terms below is correctly defined by the associated phrase?
I. CD4 T Cell: a leucocyte whose primary job is to help in the activation of other leucocytes
II. HISTAMINE: a chemical messenger in the immune response whose primary job is to dilate blood vessels near the wound site, allowing for easier recruitment of other immunce cells
III. LYSOZYME: an enzyme secreted by the eyes that acts as an antibiotic by digesting bacterial cell walls.
IV. EPITOPE: a specific region where a particular antigen binds to an antibody, B-cell receptor, or T-cell receptor.
| a. |
NONE are correctly defined. |
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| b. |
Exactly ONE is correctly defined. |
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| c. |
Exactly TWO are correctly defined. |
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| d. |
Exactly THREE are correctly defined. |
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| e. |
ALL are correctly defined. |
Sperm cells mature and are stored within human males in the _______________
| a. |
urethra |
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| b. |
prostate |
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| c. |
epididymis |
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| d. |
seminal vesicles |
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| e. |
bulbourethral gland |
Which of the following connective tissues is INCORRECTLY matched?
| a. |
Loose - cartilage |
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| b. |
Dense - tendon |
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| c. |
Fluid - blood |
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| d. |
Supporting - bone |
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| e. |
All are correctly matched. |
For a neuron at rest with a membrane potential of -65 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium inos out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the ____________________.
| a. |
depolarization of the neuron |
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| b. |
hyperpolarization of the neuron |
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| c. |
replacement of potassium ions with chloride ions |
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| d. |
replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions |
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| e. |
neuron switching on its voltage gated channels to restore equilibrium |
What term describes the mode of asexual reproduction in which offspring develop from unfertilized eggs?
| a. |
fertilization |
|
| b. |
budding |
|
| c. |
regeneration |
|
| d. |
parthenogenesis |
The vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the ___________.
| a. |
fishes |
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| b. |
reptiles |
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| c. |
birds |
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| d. |
amphibians |
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| e. |
mammals |
Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?
| a. |
B cells confer active immunity, cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity. |
|
| b. |
B cells kill pathogens directly, cytotoxic T cells kill host cells |
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| c. |
B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells. |
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| d. |
B cells carry out the cell-mediated response, cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response. |
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| e. |
B cells respond the firsat time a pathogen is present, cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times. |
Which of the following molecules is/are required to break down fats?
| a. |
Lipase |
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| b. |
Bile |
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| c. |
Trypsinogen |
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| d. |
Amylase |
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| e. |
Both A & B |
Neurotransmitters released from the vagus nerve cause a decrease in heart rate. To which part of the vertebrate nervous system would the vagus nerve belong?
| a. |
parasympathetic nervous system |
|
| b. |
sympathetic nervous sstem |
|
| c. |
somatic nervous system |
|
| d. |
autonomic nervous system |
|
| e. |
More than one of the above is correct |
Corneal eye surgery is now routinely performed to change the shape of the cornea and improve vision. This surgery is beneficial because ________________.
| a. |
the cornea is responsible for the circulation of nutrients to the eye |
|
| b. |
the cornea regulates the sensitivity of the photoreceptors |
|
| c. |
the cornea controls the amount of light entering the eye |
|
| d. |
the cornea is involved in focusing light onto the retina |
Which of the following variables can have an effect on the speed of an action potential once it has been initiated?
| a. |
myelination |
|
| b. |
diameter |
|
| c. |
type of neurotransmitter |
|
| d. |
temperature |
|
| e. |
More than one of the above. |
Which of the following processes is NOT controlled by hormones?
| a. |
the contraction of the sarcomere in the muscle fiber |
|
| b. |
the development of the male and female phenotype during developoment |
|
| c. |
the letdown of milk from the mammary gland in response to a baby's crying |
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| d. |
the levels of glucose circulating in the bloodstream |
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| e. |
All of the above are controlled by hormones. |
In: Biology
2C4H10 (g) + 13O2 (g) → 8CO2 (g)+ 10H2O (g)
ΔHrxn = Σ(bond energy of bonds broken) − Σ(bond energy of bonds formed)Eqn. 1
ΔHrxn = Σ(ΔHf, products) − Σ(ΔHf, reactants)Eqn. 2
Look up all the bond enthalpies for the reactants and products. Calculate the sum of the bond energies (in kJ) in all of the reactants and in all of the products, paying attention to the number of bonds in the molecules and the stoichiometric coefficients for each molecule from the balanced chemical equation. (Enter unrounded values.)
Σ(bond energy of bonds broken)= ----------- kJ
Σ(bond energy of bonds formed)= ----------- kJ
Calculate the enthalpy of combustion, using Eqn. 1. Express the final answer as kJ/mol of butane. Pay attention to the stoichiometric coefficient of the fuel in the balanced chemical equation. (Enter an unrounded value.)
------- kJ/mole of butane
b) Use enthalpies of formation to calculate the enthalpy of combustion for butane with the same balanced reaction written in (a)(i).
(i) Look up all the enthalpies of formation for the reactants and products—make sure you use the value for the correct phase of the species. Calculate the sum of the enthalpies of formation (in kJ) for all of the reactants and all of the products, paying attention to the stoichiometric coefficients for each molecule from the balanced equation. (Enter unrounded values.)
Σ(ΔHf, reactants)= kJΣ(ΔHf, products)= ______kJ
(ii) Calculate the enthalpy of combustion, using Eqn. 2. Express the final answer as kJ/mol of butane. Pay attention to the stoichiometric coefficient of the fuel in the balanced chemical equation. (Enter an unrounded value.)
------------ kJ/mol of butane
Part B
The amount of heat that can be obtained from a reaction depends on the amount of reactant used or the amount of product made. The quantity ΔHrxn in kJ/mol can be used like any other stoichiometric coefficient to relate the amount of heat to the moles of reactant or product used to carry out a reaction. The amount of enthalpy available per kg of fuel is called the energy density of the fuel, and is commonly used to compare the energy content of different sources of energy.
Using your answers from part A (a), answer the following questions.
(a) For butane, C4H10, calculate the energy released for the combustion of 1 kg of fuel. Express your answer in the units MJ/kg and as the absolute value of the energy. (1 MJ = 1000 kJ.) (Enter an unrounded value.)
--------------- MJ/kg butane
(b) Calculate the kg of carbon dioxide produced per kilogram of fuel for butane. Express your answer as kg CO2/kg. (Enter an unrounded value.)
--------------- kg CO2/kg butane
Part C
Diesel is a mixture of hydrocarbons with between 8 and 21 carbon atoms. The average empirical formula for the mixture that is diesel corresponds to C12H23. Biodiesel is a fatty acid ester that can be synthesized from the fatty acids (stearic acid or linoleic acid) in plants or from used cooking oil, such as canola oil or soybean oil. A typical component of biodiesel has the formula C19H36O2.
(a) Write and balance the combustion reaction for diesel (C12H23) and for biodiesel (C19H36O2). (Hint: Recall how combustion engines work before answering this question. Include states-of-matter under the given conditions in your answer. Use the lowest possible whole number coefficients.)
Dissel
4C12H23(g) + 71O2(g) → 48CO2(g)+46H2O(g)
Biodiesel
C19H36O2(g) + 27O2(g) → 19CO2(g)+18H2O(g)
(b) Calculate the kg of carbon dioxide emitted per kg of diesel and biodiesel. (Enter unrounded values.)
(i) Diesel
________ kg CO2 / kg diesel
(ii) Biodiesel
________ kg CO2 / kg biodiesel
Please solve and show work for the questions with the blanks.
In: Chemistry
Item 1
In the case below, the original source material is given along with a sample of student work. Determine the type of plagiarism by clicking the appropriate radio button.
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Many students graduate from college not knowing what they want to do with their lives. We propose that students should be encouraged to think about life goals (not just career goals) from an early age and be encouraged to be constantly on the lookout for better goals. References: |
Unfortunately, I was not encouraged to think about life goals (not just career goals) from an early age or encouraged to be on the lookout for better goals (Reigeluth et al., 2008, p.34). Instead, my parents and teachers seemed to care more about trivial details like showing up to class on time. References: |
Which of the following is true for the Student Version above?
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Obviously, it is vitally important in the war of attrition that individuals should give no inkling of when they are going to give up. Anybody who betrayed, by the merest flicker of a whisker, that he was beginning to think of throwing in the sponge, would be at an instant disadvantage. References: |
In the game of survival between individuals in nature, indicating in any way that tossing in the towel is being seriously considered can be exploited by an adversary (Dawkins, 1989). |
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In the case below, the original source material is given along with a sample of student work. Determine the type of plagiarism by clicking the appropriate radio button.
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We shall take the simpleminded view that a theory is just a model of the universe, or a restricted part of it, and a set of rules that relate quantities in the model to observations that we make. It exists only in our minds and does not have any other reality (whatever that might mean). A theory is a good theory if it satisfies two requirements. It must accurately describe a large class of observations on the basis of a model that contains only a few arbitrary elements, and it must make definite predictions about the results of future observations. References: |
A theory can be thought to exist only in our brains and lack any other form of tangible reality. This does not mean that theories are just fleeting thoughts, since they are comprised of a specific model of how things work and rules that associate model attributes to what we observe in the universe. |
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In the case below, the original source material is given along with a sample of student work. Determine the type of plagiarism by clicking the appropriate radio button.
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There is a desperate need for theorists and researchers to generate and refine a new breed of learning-focused instructional design theories that help educators and trainers to meet those needs, (i.e., that focus on learning and that foster development of initiative, teamwork, thinking skills, and diversity). The health of instructional-design theory also depends on its ability to involve stakeholders in the design process. Reference 1: Original Source Material 2
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Driscoll (2000) defines instruction broadly as "any deliberate arrangement of events to facilitate a learner's acquisition of some goal" (p. 25). In order to increase the effectiveness of instruction, there is a critical need for the creation and refinement of instructional design theories to aid those who seek to promote learning. According to Reigeluth (1999), "The health of instructional-design theory also depends on its ability to involve stakeholders in the design process" (p. 27). References: Reigeluth, C. M. (1999). What is instructional-design theory and how is it changing? In C. M. Reigeluth (Ed.), Instructional-design theories and models: A new paradigm of instructional theory(Vol. II, pp. 5-29). Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates. |
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In the case below, the original source material is given along with a sample of student work. Determine the type of plagiarism by clicking the appropriate radio button.
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The philosophical position known as constructivism views knowledge as a human construction. The various perspectives within constructivism are based on the premise that knowledge is not part of an objective, external reality that is separate from the individual. Instead, human knowledge, whether the bodies of content in public disciplines (such as mathematics or sociology) or knowledge of the individual learner, is a human construction. References: |
Does knowledge exist outside of, or separate from, the individual who knows? Constructivists hold that human knowledge, whether the bodies of content in public disciplines (such as mathematics or sociology) or knowledge of the individual learner, is a human construction (Gredler, 2001).
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In the case below, the original source material is given along with a sample of student work. Determine the type of plagiarism by clicking the appropriate radio button.
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Pei is popularly known for the controversy surrounding his Grand Louvre Pyramid (1988), constructed in the courtyard of the Louvre (fig. 25.21). The Pyramid deliberately turns the tradition and concept of pyramid inside out. A pyramid is supposed to be solid, dark, and solitary--a mesmerizing symbol of the exotic world beyond the streets and cultures of Europe. References: |
We saw one of the highlights of the architectural tour of Paris as we approached the Louvre. The guide told us that Pei's Grand Louvre Pyramid deliberately turns the tradition and concept of pyramid inside out. When we got off the bus we were able to get a closer look at the glass pyramid and what was below it. |
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As a further example, APT queries and their results may be used to form rules for expert systems that become part of an intelligent computer-based instructional system. Such a system theoretically can optimize student learning by recommending instructional sequences (i.e., temporal patterns) that have high probabilities of resulting in student mastery. In other words, APT-based decision making by a computer program can provide an empirical foundation for artificial intelligence. References: |
One way that learning can be personalized is through the use of computers to aid in "recommending instructional sequences (i.e., temporal patterns) that have high probabilities of resulting in student mastery" (Frick, 1990, p. 202). However, the ability for computers to make appropriate decisions about instructional strategies is limited, in part, by the quality of information they have access to. References: |
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But what are reasonable outcomes of the influence of global processes on education? While the question of how global processes influence all aspects of education (and who controls these forces) is multidimensional and not completely testable, there appear to be some theories of globalization as it relates to education that can be empirically examined. References: |
The authors are not alone in asking “what are reasonable outcomes of the influence of global processes on education” (p.138). In fact, this same question provides the basis for the discussion that follows. |
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Suppose you study a group of successful companies and you find that they emphasize customer focus, or quality improvement, or empowerment; how do you know that you haven't merely discovered the management practice equivalent of having buildings? How do you know that you've discovered something that distinguishes the successful companies from other companies? You don't know. You can't know--not unless you have a control set, a comparison group. References: |
Attributes of rigorous research can be shared across subjects of study. For example, Collins and Porras (2002) highlight the importance of having a control group when comparing companies in any effort to identify what specific company characteristics are able to distinguish the successful from the ordinary. References: |
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Merck, in fact, epitomizes the ideological nature--the pragmatic idealism--of highly visionary companies. Our research showed that a fundamental element in the "ticking clock" of a visionary company is a core ideology--core values and a sense of purpose beyond just making money--that guides and inspires people throughout the organization and remains relatively fixed for long periods of time. References: |
Several factors can contribute to long-term organizational success. One is the establishment of a core ideology that Collins and Porras (2002) describe as "core values and sense of purpose beyond just making money" (p. 48). Also, the importance of a visionary leader that guides and inspires people throughout the organization and remains relatively fixed for long periods of time is hard to over emphasize. References: |
Which of the following is true for the Student Version above?
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In: Psychology
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1. A 7-year-old boy is a patient in the intensive care unit you work at. He was on a camping trip with his family when he accidentally fell on the campfire causing severe second- and third-degree burns over 60% of his body. The clinical care team tells his parents that it will be critical to maintain their son’s airway and keep his fluid levels high.
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2. A 43-year-old man presents to the clinic you work at for a follow-up blood pressure check accompanied by his 9-year-old daughter. He is noted to still have hypertension (high blood pressure). The physician prescribes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
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3. You are the chair of the board of pediatric health that reports to the state government. A recommendation has been made to the board to require that children have a blood test for major diseases of electrolyte balance at every checkup, regardless of whether the clinician feels the client has symptoms that require a test.
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4. A 4-year-old girl presents with her parents to the emergency room you work at. Her parents explain that the flu is going around her day care and that their daughter began to feel sick 4 days ago. She has been unable to eat since then, with prolonged vomiting for 3 days. She is admitted to the hospital for rehydration and correction of her acid–base disturbance.
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6. A 64-year-old woman presents to the urgent care office complaining of shortness of breath and coughing up “yellow mucus.” She has a history of smoking one pack a day for 20 years and renal failure. Upon examination, she is noted to have a fever and low blood pressure. After a chest x-ray, she is diagnosed with right lower lobe pneumonia with subsequent sepsis and a resultant metabolic acidosis. The patient is admitted to a local hospital for intravenous antibiotics and further observation.
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In: Nursing
The Case of the Man with the Weak Arm
Albert, a seventy-two year old African-American man, is brought into the emergency room by his daughter. Approximately 45 minutes before arriving, Albert dropped his book when his right arm and hand "fell asleep". When he tried to rise, he noticed his right leg was weak and he needed to hold onto the couch to stand up. He had a difficult time talking because the right side of his face and mouth were "numb" and his tongue felt "thick".
In obtaining a medical and family history it was noted that Albert has smoked at least 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the last 40 years and both of his parents died of strokes when they were in their mid sixties. He has previously been diagnosed with both essential hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. He admits to "skipping" his antihypertensive medication because of the unpleasant side effects it causes. Albert notes that he has been experiencing short (5 – 10 minutes) incidences of weakness on his right side, but he attributed this to the position he was in, causing his arm or leg to "fall asleep". He has also noticed that he is having mild headaches, but recently, these have been less frequent.
Physical examination indicated that Albert was alert and anxious, but his speech was slurred. He was afebrile, had a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, a regular heart rate of 86 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 190/120 mm Hg. Albert had no irregular heart sounds and presented with slight bilateral edema of the ankles. Examination of the nervous system indicated intact tactile sensory function, decreased strength of the right extremities, a diminished gag reflex, diminished right deep tendon reflexes, and right facial droop. Based on these symptoms the emergency room physician suspected a thrombolytic stroke and immediately ordered a head CT scan and various blood tests. The physician also discussed the relative benefits and risks of various treatments and courses of action with Albert and his daughter. Albert was given aspirin for possible thrombosis and a b-blocking antihypertensive and his condition was monitored closely while awaiting the test results.
Results of the laboratory tests indicated hyperglycemia, hypercholesterolemia, normal blood clotting times and platelet numbers. In addition, the head CT was normal. Despite the treatments initiated, Albert’s condition continued to deteriorate. While his blood pressure decreased to 170/84 mm Hg, his heart rate was elevated to 100 beats per minute and became irregular. He continued to demonstrate decreased sensation on his right side, slight dysarthria, and further decreases in strength in both right extremities. Based on these results, treatment with plasminogen activator was initiated and an electrocardiogram (ECG) was conducted. The results of the ECG indicated atrial flutter.
After 5 hours, Albert’s condition improved to the point that the hemiparesis and dysarthria were at baseline levels and his blood pressure was stabilized at 156/70 mm Hg. Further treatments were then initiated to stabilize Albert’s atrial flutter and hypertension. He was given digoxin, which stabilized the atrial flutter and heart rate at 80 beats per minute and an angiotenisn converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor was prescribed for the hypertension. An echocardiogram indicated bilateral stenosis of the carotid arteries. Antithrombolytic therapy (325 mg aspirin/day) was also prescribed. Albert was encouraged to stop smoking and to modify his diet and was discharged.
Answer the following questions about this case using the medical terms learned this week.
What symptoms suggested that Albert was having a stroke? What risk factors did Albert present with, which would support the symptoms observed? Why is Albert’s treatment include aspirin?
In: Nursing
1. Label Analysis—Lipids
Instructions: Use the label for a frozen meal below to answer the questions that follow on a separate sheet of paper.
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INGREDIENTS: COOKED FETTUCCINI PASTA (WATER, SEMOLINA [DURUM WHEAT, NIACIN, FERROUS SULFATE, THAMINE MONONITRATE, RIBOFLAVIN, FOLIC ACID], EGG WHITE), COOKED CHICKEN BREAST CHUNKS (CHICKEN BREAST CHUNKS, WATER, MODIFIED FOOD STARCH, SALT, SODIUM TRIPOLYPHOSPHATE), BROCCOLI, HEAVY WHIPPING CREAM, WATER, CREAM CHEESE (PASTEURIZED MILK AND CREAM CHEESE CULTURES, SALT, CAROB BEAN GUM), SOYBEAN OIL, ROMANO (FROM COW’S MILK) AND PARMESAN CHEESE (PART-SKIM MILK, CHEESE CULTURES, SALT, ENZYMES, CELLULOSE POWDER [PREVENTS CAKING]), HALF AND HALF (CREAM, MILK), CONTAINS 2% OR LESS OF: GARLIC, SHERRY WINE (CONTAINS SULFUR DIOXIDE), STABILIZER (MODIFIED FOOD STARCH, SODIUM PHOSPHATE, MONO- AND DIGLYCERIDES, DEHYDRATED GARLIC, XANTHAN AND GUAR GUMS, SALT, PAPRIKA), SALT, MODIFIED CORN STARCH, BUTTER (CREAM, SALT), FLAVORINGS, BUTTER FLAVOR (PARTIALLY HYDROGENATED SOYBEAN OIL, FLAVOR [BUTTER OIL, ENZYME MODIFIED BUTTERFAT, WHEY POWDER, NONFAT DRY MILK POWDER], SOY LECITHIN [EMULSIFIER]), SPICES, PAPRIKA. CONTAINS: WHEAT, EGG, MILK, SOY. |
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Short answers (do not need to be in complete sentences). Show work for calculations.
(20 points.)
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Answers |
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Hint: how many calories per gram does fat provide? Divide the total fat calories from the calories per serving x 100. |
Show work |
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2. What percentage of the total calories comes from saturated fat? (3 points) |
Show work |
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3. Name one ingredient that likely to contribute a large amount of saturated fat? (3 points) |
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4. What percentage of the Daily Value for total fat is contributed by this particular product? (3 points) Hint: Review label; what is the DV for fat based on a 2000 kcal diet? Divide the amount of fat in grams by the DV x 100. |
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5. What percentage of the Daily Value for saturated fat is contributed by this particular product? (2 points) |
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6. What does the %DV for the saturated fat mean for the person who eats one serving of this product? (2 points) |
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7. Which ingredient is present in the highest amount? (2 points) |
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8. What percentage of the Daily Value for calcium is contained in this product? (2 points) |
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All informations are inside. It seems like you can't solve this. Are you really a tutor?
In: Nursing
Question 1
Identify the risk management technique being adopted
in the following cases.
A.Understanding that WIFI signal may have harmful
effect on human health, you continue setup a WIFI system at
home.
B.Worrying that the banking system may collapse, you
put all your money under your bed.
C.You put on a screen protector and a cover on your
phone.
D.When you go travel, you select an airline company
which is highly ranked in terms of safety.
Question 2
Explain whether the following is True or
False
A. Buying insurance allows the insured to reduce
his/her risk exposure.
B. Whole life insurance provides better protection
than Universal life insurance.
C. You should always request the insurance company to
put down the disability clause on the insurance plan.
D. A term life insurance will be the most suitable to
a journalist who will be working in Afghan for 5 years.
E. If a loss is certain to occur, there
is no risk.
Question 3
CY died with a $200,000 life insurance policy. His
wife, Regina, was the primary beneficiary and their children,
Chung-yan and Chai-yan, were the contingent beneficiaries. All
three survived. How would the policy proceeds be
distributed?
a. $200,000 to Regina
b. $100,000 each to Chung-yan and Chai-yan
c. $100,000 to Regina and $50,000 each to Chung-yan
and Chai-yan
d. $66,666 each to Regina, Chung-yan, and
Chai-yan
e. $150,000 to Regina and $25,000 each to
Chung-yan and Chai-yan
Question 4
An insured usually chooses variable life insurance in
order to
a. provide more flexible coverage.
b. emphasize the savings portion while still having
death protection.
c. lessen the savings feature of life
insurance.
d. substitute for fixed-dollar insurance
protection.
e. reduce insurance premiums.
Question 5
Ho purchased a policy with an initial premium of
$30,000 and may elect how much he desires to pay in premiums from
now on. He has purchased a face value of $1,000,000 and can
accumulate cash value. What type of life insurance has Ho
purchased?
a. universal life
b. whole life
c. modified whole life
d. term life
e. adjustable whole life
In: Finance
QUESTION 22
Kelly, a new employee, learns her company provides a group insurance plan that she can enroll in. Her friend, Michael, suggests that Kelly would be able to save money if she chooses to purchase an individual insurance plan over the company's group insurance plan. Which of the following weakens Michael's argument?
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Individual plans are typically offered only to senior executives. |
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Employees get more for their money when they receive insurance as a group benefit. |
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Rates for group insurance are typically lower than those of individual policies. |
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Kelly will get more take-home pay if she opts for a group insurance plan. |
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Kelly will not be eligible for other benefits if she does not enroll in a group insurance plan. |
QUESTION 18
John is the head of the insurance claims department. John works for longer hours than his subordinates, however, he is not paid overtime for working more than 40 hours per week. Under the FLSA, which of the following will justify the organization's decision not to give John overtime pay?
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John is not a U.S. citizen. |
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John is considered as an exempt employee. |
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John is unmarried. |
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John has lower educational qualifications than his subordinates. |
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John comes from an economically strong background. |
2 points
QUESTION 19
John is the owner of the restaurant, The Round. He decides to increase employee motivation by introducing benefit packages. However, Nina, the manager, suggests that employees will be more motivated if John increases their actual wages. Which of the following statements, if true, strengthens Nina's argument?
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Employees do not prefer cash compensation due to higher tax rates in the state. |
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John's competitor, Mark, gives many benefits to his employees. |
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Most of the employees at The Round belong to the age group that looks forward to pensions. |
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Benefit packages are more difficult to understand by employees than pay structures. |
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The state has introduced mandatory requirements for employee benefits. QUESTION 24 Leroy joins the human resource department at ZenFuels Inc., where the production workers are represented by a union. Which of the following goals would Leroy most likely be expected to work toward in supporting any negotiations with the union?
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In: Operations Management
Using the "mammals" dataset from the "MASS" library in R:
body brain
Arctic fox 3.385 44.50
Owl monkey 0.480 15.50
Mountain beaver 1.350 8.10
Cow 465.000 423.00
Grey wolf 36.330 119.50
Goat 27.660 115.00
Roe deer 14.830 98.20
Guinea pig 1.040 5.50
Verbet 4.190 58.00
Chinchilla 0.425 6.40
Ground squirrel 0.101 4.00
Arctic ground squirrel 0.920 5.70
African giant pouched rat 1.000 6.60
Lesser short-tailed shrew 0.005 0.14
Star-nosed mole 0.060 1.00
Nine-banded armadillo 3.500 10.80
Tree hyrax 2.000 12.30
N.A. opossum 1.700 6.30
Asian elephant 2547.000 4603.00
Big brown bat 0.023 0.30
Donkey 187.100 419.00
Horse 521.000 655.00
European hedgehog 0.785 3.50
Patas monkey 10.000 115.00
Cat 3.300 25.60
Galago 0.200 5.00
Genet 1.410 17.50
Giraffe 529.000 680.00
Gorilla 207.000 406.00
Grey seal 85.000 325.00
Rock hyrax-a 0.750 12.30
Human 62.000 1320.00
African elephant 6654.000 5712.00
Water opossum 3.500 3.90
Rhesus monkey 6.800 179.00
Kangaroo 35.000 56.00
Yellow-bellied marmot 4.050 17.00
Golden hamster 0.120 1.00
Mouse 0.023 0.40
Little brown bat 0.010 0.25
Slow loris 1.400 12.50
Okapi 250.000 490.00
Rabbit 2.500 12.10
Sheep 55.500 175.00
Jaguar 100.000 157.00
Chimpanzee 52.160 440.00
Baboon 10.550 179.50
Desert hedgehog 0.550 2.40
Giant armadillo 60.000 81.00
Rock hyrax-b 3.600 21.00
Raccoon 4.288 39.20
Rat 0.280 1.90
E. American mole 0.075 1.20
Mole rat 0.122 3.00
Musk shrew 0.048 0.33
Pig 192.000 180.00
Echidna 3.000 25.00
Brazilian tapir 160.000 169.00
Tenrec 0.900 2.60
Phalanger 1.620 11.40
Tree shrew 0.104 2.50
Red fox 4.235 50.40
The dataset needs to be log transformed to meet regression assumptions. Use predict() to calculate the confidence interval and regression line for this regression and graph it on both the log/log plot and on the un-transformed data (this will require that you back-transform the coordinates for the line and confidence intervals).
In: Statistics and Probability
Billingham Packaging is considering expanding its production capacity by purchasing a new machine, the XC-750. The cost of the XC-750 is $2.72 million. Unfortunately, installing this machine will take several months and will partially disrupt production. The firm has just completed a $48,000 feasibility study to analyze the decision to buy the XC-750, resulting in the following estimates: •
Marketing: Once the XC-750 is operating next year, the extra capacity is expected to generate $10.2 million per year in additional sales, which will continue for the ten-year life of the machine. •
Operations: The disruption caused by the installation will decrease sales by $4.93 million this year. As with Billingham?s existing products, the cost of goods for the products produced by the XC-750 is expected to be 74% of their sale price. The increased production will also require increased inventory on hand of $1.1 million during the life of the project. The increased production will require additional inventory of $1.1 million, to be added in year 0 and depleted in year 10. •
Human Resources: The expansion will require additional sales and administrative personnel at a cost of $2.06 million per year. • Accounting: The XC-750 will be depreciated via the straight-line method in years 1?10. Receivables are expected to be 14% of revenues and payables to be 10% of the cost of goods sold. Billingham?s marginal corporate tax rate is 15%.
a. Determine the incremental earnings from the purchase of the XC-750.
b. Determine the free cash flow from the purchase of the XC-750.
c. If the appropriate cost of capital for the expansion is 10.3%, compute the NPV of the purchase.
d. While the expected new sales will be $10.2 million per year from the expansion, estimates range from $8.3 million to $12.1 million. What is the NPV in the worst case? In the best case?
e. What is the break-even level of new sales from the expansion? What is the break-even level for the cost of goods sold?
f. Billingham could instead purchase the XC-900, which offers even greater capacity. The cost of the XC-900 is $4 million. The extra capacity would not be useful in the first two years of operation, but would allow for additional sales in years 3-10. What level of additional sales (above the $10.2 million expected for the XC-750) per year in those years would justify purchasing the larger machine?
In: Finance