There is only an Experiment 1 in this lab.

Experiment 1: Double Replacement Precipitation Reaction between Calcium Chloride and Sodium Carbonate

In this experiment you will precipitate calcium carbonate from the reaction between sodium carbonate and calcium chloride. The reaction is:

Procedure

Place a weigh boat on the scale. Once you have the mass of your weigh boat, press the button on the right hand side (0/T). Your scale should now read 0.0 g.Use your metal spatula to weigh out 2.0 g of CaCl2 in the weigh boat (the total mass should be 2.0 g). Record the exact mass of the powder in Table 9.Be sure to wipe off your spatula, gloves, and scale on a paper towel between chemical samples to avoid cross-contamination.Add the 2.0 g of CaCl2 to the 250 mL beaker. Use the 100 mL graduated cylinder to add 50 mL of distilled water to the beaker and mix with the glass stir rod until all CaCl2 has dissolved.

Note: This is an exothermic process, so the beaker may become warm.

Place a 50 mL beaker on the scale. Once you have the mass of your beaker, press the button on the right hand side (0/T). Your scale should now read 0.0 g.Use your metal spatula to weigh out 2.5 g of Na2CO3 in the 50 mL beaker. Record the exact mass of the powder in Table 9.Remove the beaker from the scale. Use your 100 mL graduated cylinder to add 25 mL of distilled water to the 50 mL beaker and mix with the glass stir rod until all Na2CO3 has dissolved. Add all of the Na2CO3 solution to the beaker containing the CaCl2 solution. It is important that all of the Na2CO3 is added. To ensure this, rinse the 50 mL beaker with up to 5 mL distilled water, and pour the rinse into the CaCl2 solution.Stir the solution for three minutes. Then, allow it to sit for 15 minutes. This gives sufficient time for all CaCO3 to precipitate. Record your observations in Table 9.While the solution is sitting, set up the gravity filtration apparatus (Figure 4). Place a funnel in the 250 mL Erlenmeyer flask, such that the bottom of the funnel is also inside the mouth of the flask. Obtain a piece of filter paper. Use the scale to weigh the filter paper and record the mass in Table 9.Prepare a filtering funnel as shown in Figure 5. Fold a piece of filter paper in half twice to make quarters, and place the paper in the funnel so that three quarters are open on one side and one quarter is on the opposite side. Place the paper into the funnel and seat with a small amount of distilled water (this will prevent the filter paper from rising up).  Slowly filter the solution from the beaker. Additional distilled water may also be used to transfer any remaining solid into the filtration apparatus. After all the solution has been filtered, use the pipette to rinse the filter paper with approximately 5 mL of isopropyl alcohol to aid the drying process. Allow the isopropyl alcohol to completely drip through the filter before removing filter paper from the funnel. Carefully remove the filter paper from the funnel and put it precipitate-side up in a safe place to dry overnight. Air drying will take anywhere from 5 to 18 hours, depending on the humidity of your region. Allow the product to dry, undisturbed, and determine the mass of the product recovered (Experimental Yield) by re-weighing the system and subtracting the weight of the filter paper. Record the data in Table 9.

Lab questions

Item	Mass (g)
Calcium Chloride CaCl2	2.0g
Sodium Carbonate Na2CO3	2.6g
Filter Paper	3.9g
Calcium Carbonate, CaCO3 (Experimental Yield)	1.3g

1. Which is the limiting reagent, CaCl2 or Na2CO3? What is the theoretical yield of the product CaCO3? Show all work to prove your answers. Use the correctly balanced equation given in the Procedure

2. What happens to the excess reactant after the reaction is complete?

3. Use the following equation to find the percent yield of CaCO3. Show all work. The Experimental Yield is found in Table 9 and the Theoretical Yield is from question 1 above.

4. Explain why an experimental yield from an experiment (not necessarily this one) could be LOWER than the theoretical yield (i.e. the percent yield is less than 100%). HUMAN ERROR and CALCULATION ERROR are unacceptable reasons. It is expected that you follow all procedures to the letter, and that you know how to do the calculations properly (or find appropriate help to get the calculations right).

5. Explain why an experimental yield from an experiment (not necessarily this one) could be HIGHER than the theoretical yield (i.e. the percent yield is more than 100%). HUMAN ERROR and CALCULATION ERROR are unacceptable reasons. It is expected that you follow all procedures to the letter, and that you know how to do the calculations properly (or find appropriate help to get the calculations right).
6. What is the theoretical yield of CaCO3 if 6.0 g of CaCl2 (instead of 2.0 g) is used for the reaction while the amount of Na2CO3 remains the same at 2.5 g? Support your answer with calculations and numerical values. Show all work. Again, re-read the Introduction the lab Moodle shell and the example before the Post Lab Questions.

Fresh Munchables is a mid-sized but steadily growing food-processing company founded in 1967. Since its inception, the company has been committed to providing only premium quality health foods. The company is headquartered in Wichita, Kansas, and it is one of the area’s largest producers of soups and simple meals. In the past 20 years, the company has also begun processing healthy snacks and beverages. Fresh Munchables has traditionally sold its products through large grocery stores, but it is now venturing into online and restaurant businesses, which is all very new territory for management.

The company is split up into three overarching strategic business units—soups and meals, drinks, and snacks. Additionally, the company is divided into several business units at the operational level, consisting of a mix of business operations, manufacturing (production), research and development, finance, and so on. As the company continues to grow, the executive team and other leaders are constantly looking for ways to improve processes.

Because Fresh Munchables has grown from a very small company into a well-established organization, management has decided to broaden the company’s strategic HR functions. The human resources team is currently working to improve recruiting and hiring processes, succession planning, and most importantly, compensation and rewards.

For many years, the company has delegated compensation decisions to managers with little to no training on the subject. This has left the company in a disorganized, confused state when it comes to paying and rewarding employees. These problems have compounded as Fresh Munchables has recently opened up new manufacturing locations with new managers and many new employees.

The chief human resources officer has organized a team of compensation specialists of which you are a part to spearhead total compensation-related problems and help the company to reach its current and future goals. You and your team can achieve this by revising the current total compensation system to reflect the company’s current business strategies and goals as well as attract and retain top talent.

1. Angelina is a self-proclaimed “health nut” and animal activist. She recently was hired at Fresh Munchables, a food and beverage company offering vegan on-the-go snacks, as their marketing manager. Angelina could not be happier about her new position because it aligns with her values.

   What does the HR manager who hired Angelina know about the purpose principle?

   Purposeful employees are typically the hardest-working employees in any industry. Animal activists have a higher moral purpose than those who disregard animal rights. When the employee’s values align with the business’s core purpose, the employee will need fewer rewards. When the employee’s values align with the business’s core purpose, the employee will value their relationship with the business more.

2. Bookmark question for later

   After the departure of more than a few employees over the past six months, the management team at Fresh Munchables’ are concerned about their employees’ happiness and job satisfaction. The company has raised wages and found the best possible health care plan; yet, it still struggles to keep long-term employees.

   Which strategy can the management team use to figure out how to retain employees and increase employee satisfaction?

   Reward the managers whose departments have the highest employee retention rates and fire the ones with low employee satisfaction. Offer a better retirement plan for employees in order to incentivize older workers to apply for jobs. Create policies that penalize employees for leaving the company before a specified period of time in order to establish expectations. Conduct a survey asking employees what benefits they want in order to gain useful information about preferred compensation plans.

3. Bookmark question for later

   Liping was an employee in the marketing department at Fresh Munchables. As time passed, she became dissatisfied with her own pay after realizing that the sales team made more than she did and that they also received quarterly bonuses based on their sales numbers. Liping felt that her efforts in marketing led to more sales by the sales team and that the division of pay was unfair. Unfortunately, her manager wasn’t able to provide satisfactory answers to her questions about why the two departments were paid differently and Liping soon quit. Fresh Munchables does not want such a situation to occur again. While developing a total rewards system, the compensation team should do their best to build a model that is ________.

   private and inaccessible, because it will prevent the employees at Fresh Munchables from getting upset by pay disparities flexible and adaptable, because it will permit the managers at Fresh Munchables to make appropriate wage-related decisions clear and logical, because it will allow the employer to justify their compensation-related decisions fluid and ever changing, because it will enable Fresh Munchables to change its total compensation system on a monthly basis

4) As an HR professional, you understand that compensation and total rewards is a complicated topic. At Fresh Munchables, there have been many cases over the years in which employees have shared strong feelings and harsh words with HR when they felt that their pay was unfair.

In light of the company’s past dealings with employees concerning compensation, which of the following is important for you to understand as you revise the total compensation system?

Wages and rewards shape how employees both feel and perform. Employees don’t need a transparent compensation system because it could make them feel bad. Employees care deeply about being paid more than their peers. Compensation is too complex to approach straightforwardly and openly.

QUESTION 1

Ayn Rand believed that one should set one's own interests aside in order to be ethical.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 2

The outcome of the Good Samaritan Experiment was in support of the claims in virtue ethics

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 3

For Kant, human have inherent dignity because they have the capacity to reason and discern right from wrong.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 4

Cultural relativism says that moral truth is universal.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 5

David Hume believed that sentiments got in the way of our moral decisions.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 6

Altruism is the opposite of egoism.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 7

Kant is a moral absolutist.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 8

Divine command theory says that God decrees what is right and wrong.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 9

Cultural relativism says that there is no such thing as universal truth in ethics.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 10

Betrand Russell believed that the universe is a cold, meaningless place, devoid of value and purpose.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 11

Plato's Symposium contains a discussion that askes whether conduct is right because the gods command it, or doe the gods command it because it is right?

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 12

Virtue is a commendable trait of character manifested in habitual action.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 13

Simple subjectivism cannot account for moral disagreement.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 14

According to cultural relativism, it is wrong for Eskimos to eat their babies.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 15

Natural Law states that there is a rational order to the universe.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 16

The following is an example of an argument from nature (i.e. based on nature), the "purpose' of the eyes is to see, therefore it is wrong to use one's eyes to flirt.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 17

One of the problems with Natural Law theory is that it seems to confuse the "is" and "ought" distinction.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 18

The categorial imperative is central to virtue ethics.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 19

If you act out of duty, then you are following utilitarianism.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 20

Jeremy Bentham and Peter Singer have nothing in common.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 21

Ethical egoism says that we are born with self-interest.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 22

In utilitarianism the goal is to produce the greatest overall balance of happiness over unhappiness.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 23

Psychological egoism is the normative theory of ethics that says that the "right" thing to do is always self-interest.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 24

One of the problems with virtue ethics is making sense of situations wherein someone might be courageous in an unethical endeavor.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 25

The minimum conception of morality states that, at the very least, the effort to guide one's conduct by emotion--that is, to what there are the best feelings for doing--while giving equal weight to the interests of each individual affected by one's action.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 26

In all likelihood, John Stuart Mill would have support the argument for euthanasia based on utilitarianism.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 27

Moral consequences are important to Kant, but not Bentham.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 28

Ethical subjectivism says that morality is based on universal moral code.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 29

Virtue ethics says that moral character can determine ethical questions.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 30

An argument for the legalization of marijuana cannot be made using utilitarianism.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 31

One of the problems with divine command theory is that it seems to suggest that morality is arbitrary.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 32

"Way to go, Peyton!" is a factual statement and not an expression of the speaker's attitude.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 33

Thomas Hobbes believed that human nature was good and that we could get by without laws and police.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 34

Cowardliness is a lack of courage.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 35

The prisoner's dilemma is a thought experiment that supports the importance of social contract theory.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 36

John Mackie was an objectivist who believed in the power of facts in ethics.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 37

The benefits argument states, if we can benefit someone without harming anyone else, we ought to do so.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 38

Aristotle's Golden Mean says that virtue lies between two extremes (excess and deficiency).

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 39

Kant believes that right actions are the ones that produce the most good.

True

False

2.5 points   

QUESTION 40

Kant was a Christian, but did not make an argument based on religious supposition.

True

False

Case 63: Pray With Me

You are the Vice President of Nursing Services in a nondenominational community hospital, and you receive a complaint from a patient, who is a Wiccan. The patient and her primary care nurse, Penny Baker, were discussing her religious practices and how she prays, when another nurse, Ruth Goose, walked into the room, stated, “Thou shalt not suffer a witch amongst you,” and told Penny not to discuss the “satanic religion” with the patient any more. The patient demands an apology and threatens to go to the media. She feels she has been discriminated against because she is a Wiccan and that her patient care experience was poor during her hospitalization because of her spiritual beliefs. You convene a meeting with Penny and her immediate supervisor, Ruth Goose.

Ruth Goose is wearing a large gold cross on her neck. Penny wears no jewelry and is dressed in her blue scrubs. When you ask Penny what happened, Ruth answers for her. “She did the right thing. We don’t have to pray with witches. They worship Satan. It’s blasphemy. What’s next? Human sacrifice?” Penny can’t get a word in edgewise. Ruth keeps repeating “Thou shalt not suffer a witch amongst you, it says so in Leviticus!”

What should you do?

USE INFORMATION FROM CASE TO DO A WRITE UP (PLEASE INCLUDE DETAILED EXPLANATION AND COMPLETE ALL 6 STEPS)

1 - Write a background statement

2- What are the major problems and secondary issues?

3- Your Role

4- Organizational Strengths and Weaknesses

5- Alternatives and Recommended Solution

6- Evaluation

THEIR IS AN EXAMPLE BELOW OF HOW THIS SHOULD LOOK!!!!

Case Write-Up

Background Statement

A Wiccan patient who visited a nondenominational community hospital was discussing her religious beliefs with her primary care nurse, Penny Baker, when suddenly another nurse, Ruth Goose, walked into the conversation and rudely stated, “Thou shalt not suffer a witch amongst you.” The Wiccan nurse felt offended and complained that she was discriminated in the hospital because of her religious beliefs.

Major Problems and Secondary Issues

The major problem is that the two nurses, Penny Baker and Ruth Goose, made the patient feel unwelcomed in the nondenominational community hospital because of her Wiccan religious beliefs. The secondary issues that the nondenominational community hospital may face is that the Wiccan patient is threatening to go to the media. This means that there may be news coverage that your hospital engages in religious discrimination. This may make people, especially Wiccans, look down on your medical services.

Your Role

In this case, I am the Vice President of Nursing Services. As stated in the text, it writes, “You are the Vice President of Nursing Services in a nondenominational community hospital, and you receive a complaint from a patient, who is a Wiccan.” The advantages of this role are that I can sit down with Penny and Ruth to let them know that religious discrimination is not to be tolerated while we are caring for the patients. The disadvantages of this role are that I must decide how I am going to discuss this matter with Penny and Ruth because they’re passionate about being against the Wiccan patient. I need to let Penny and Ruth know that our patient’s care matters above everything else, not what religion they practice.

Organizational Strengths and Weaknesses

As the Vice President of Nursing Services, my strengths are that I can hold a training on racial, ethnic, and religious diversity. This training can supplement nurses with the information they need to work in a diverse environment. Nurses need to know that they must treat their patients justly despite their identity. The weaknesses I may face are that the two nurses are very religious themselves. They may not listen to what I have to say about religious discrimination because the two nurses try to justify their act by saying, “She did the right thing. We don’t have to pray with witches. They worship Satan. It’s blasphemy. What’s next? Human sacrifice?”

Alternatives and Recommended Solution

As a solution for this problem, I will make sure to provide all the nurses working in the hospital with diversity training. It is important that I sit down with the nurses and make it clear that discrimination will not be tolerated while they are working in our hospital. I can also offer every patient visiting the hospital with a survey. The patient can fill out the survey to let us know how they felt about their stay. Nurses who’ve been accused of any sort of discrimination, will have to speak with management. We would keep these incidences of discrimination in a file, and it the dilemma does not change, I would have to begin writing up the nurses. Discrimination would not be tolerated while the patient is in the hospital trying to recover from a medical condition. I would also recommend Penny and Ruth write an official letter of apology to the Wiccan patient before she decides to go to the media. Writing the official letter of apology would be my first recommended solution to Penny and Ruth, so that the patient does not feel unwelcomed to our hospital’s services in the future.

Evaluation

If there are enough surveys to prove that our medical treatment is getting better and there are less patients coming from the patients about discrimination, then I would know that the instances of discrimination have stopped. The goal is to aid in the medical recovery of patients. Patients must also feel welcomed to our hospital services despite their identity. By getting fewer, or even better, no discrimination complaints, I would know that my diversity trainings and meetings have worked.

Respiratory Case Study

Priya is a healthy 22-year-old woman who just graduated from BU and has lived in Boston her whole life. She goes to Colorado to visit a friend and together they drive to the top of Pike’s Peak, a mountain with a peak elevation of approximately 14,000 ft above sea level. While walking around taking pictures at the top of the peak Priya finds that she needs to sit down and catch her breath several times, even though she is not exercising intensively. During those breaks she also notices that she is taking breaths much more deeply and frequently than normal. She walks to the weather station to rest and glances at a barometer hanging overhead. It reads 450 mmHg. She thinks back to what she learned in BI 315 and realizes that she may be experiencing altitude sickness.

1. Relative to sea level, the P in Priya’s (1) alveoli, (2) systemic arterial blood, and (3) systemic venous blood is:

A (1) lower; (2) lower; (3) the same.

B (1) the same; (2) the same; (3) the same.

C (1) lower; (2) lower; (3) lower.

D (1) lower; (2) the same; (3) the same.

2. From a mechanistic perspective, what caused Priya to begin breathing more quickly immediately when she arrived at the top of the peak?

A Increased peripheral chemoreceptor firing rate caused by low arterial P.

B #Increased peripheral chemoreceptor firing rate caused by high arterial P.

C Decreased peripheral chemoreceptor firing rate caused by low arterial P.

D Increased peripheral chemoreceptor firing rate caused by high arterial ​[H].

3. Once Priya has been at high altitude for a short time (e.g., a few hours), what do you predict will be true of the P of her systemic arterial blood?

A It will be lower than when she was at sea level.

B It will be higher than when she was at sea level.

4. Once Priya has been at high altitude for a short time (e.g., a few hours), what do you predict will be true of the pH of her systemic arterial blood?

A It will be lower than when she was at sea level.

B It will be higher than when she was at sea level.

C It will be the same as when she was at sea level.

5. Holding all else equal, which of the following chronic responses do you predict would be homeostatic and reduce the severity of Priya’s altitude sickness?

A A decrease in the amount of hemoglobin contained in each red blood cell.

B A reduction in capillary density in her metabolically active tissues (e.g. her skeletal muscles).

C Increased tonic level of constriction of her respiratory airways due to elevated levels of smooth muscle contraction.

D Biochemical changes in her cells that increase the average number of ATPs generated per O molecule by cellular respiration.

6. One chronic change that occurs robustly when humans move to high altitude is an increase in red blood cell differentiation, leading to a very high red blood cell count in the plasma (polycythemia). This was long regarded as a clear example of adaptive physiological acclimation to low atmospheric O in humans. However, it has recently been argued that this is actually an instance where a physiological change (increased red blood cell differentiation) that might be homeostatic in some contexts (e.g. low tissue O levels due to low red blood cell counts after a hemorrhage) might in fact be harmful in the wrong context (e.g. low tissue O levels due to low atmospheric O levels). Which of the following scenarios is a plausible reason why polycythemia might be harmful to Priya’s overall health?

A Polycythemia reduces the partial pressure of O freely dissolved in the blood plasma.

B Polycythemia increases the viscosity of her blood, which increases resistance to flow, which increases blood pressure and puts added strain on the chambers of her heart when pumping blood.

C Polycythemia shifts the O-hemoglobin dissociation curve of the blood to the left, increasing the affinity of the blood for O.

D Polycythemia reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of her blood.

7. After a while, Priya’s friend Tenzin comes to visit her at the visitor’s center. Tenzin’s family immigrated to the US from Tibet before Tenzin was born. Even though Tenzin has never lived anywhere but Boston, Priya and Tenzin notice that he experiences relatively mild symptoms of altitude sickness when he arrives at Pike’s Peak. They do some research and find recent peer-reviewed studies by evolutionary biologists demonstrating that several human populations, including ethnic Tibetans, have adapted to life at high altitudes over the past several thousand years. This gets Priya and Tenzin thinking about what those physiological adaptations could plausibly be.

Respiratory Case Study.07

HomeworkAnswered

All of the following evolutionary adaptations might be predicted to improve the physiological performance of human populations living at high altitude EXCEPT:

A Globally lower resistance to blood flow through the vasculature due to the effects of local vasodilators such as nitric oxide.

B Increased ability of the kidneys to filter out and excrete HCO in the urine.

C Increased chest circumference and higher lung volumes (including tidal volume and vital capacity).

D Lower endogenous bursting rates in the neurons of the respiratory rhythmicity centers in the medulla.

Case #1

At 3 years old, Daisy Miller was admitted to the Boston Children's Hospital with pneumonia. Her mother had taken her to Dr. James, a pediatrician, because she had a fever and was breathing fast. Her temperature was high, at 40.1°C (104.2°F), her respiratory rate was 40 per minute (normal 20), and her blood oxygen saturation was 88% (normal >98%). Dr. James also noticed that lymph nodes in Daisy's neck and armpits (axillae) were enlarged. A chest X-ray was ordered. It revealed diffuse consolidation (whitened areas of lung due to inflammation, indicating pneumonia) of the lower lobe of her left lung, and she was admitted to the hospital.

Daisy had had pneumonia once before, at 25 months of age, as well as 10 episodes of middle-ear infection (otitis media) that had required antibiotic therapy. Tubes had been placed in her ears to provide adequate drainage and ventilation of the ear infections.

In the hospital a blood sample was taken and was found to contain 13,500 white blood cells/ml, of which 81% were neutrophils and 14% were lymphocytes. A blood culture grew the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Because of Daisy's repeated infections, Dr. James consulted an immunologist. She tested Daisy's immunoglobulin levels and found that her serum contained 470 mg/dl of IgM (normal 40-240), undetectable IgA (normal 70-312), and 40 mg/dl of IgG (normal 639-1344). Although Daisy had been vaccinated against tetanus and Haemophilus influenzae, she had no specific IgG antibodies against tetanus toxoid or to the polyribosyl phosphate (PRP) polysaccharide antigen of H. influenzae. Because her blood type was A, she was tested for anti-B antibodies. Her IgM titer of anti-B antibodies was positive at 1:320 (upper limit of normal), whereas her IgG titer was undetectable.

Daisy was started on intravenous antibiotics. She improved rapidly and was sent home on a course of oral antibiotics. Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) therapy was started, which resulted in a marked decrease in the frequency of infections.

Analysis of Daisy's peripheral blood lymphocytes revealed normal expression of CD40L on T cells activated by anti-CD3 antibodies, and normal expression of CD40 on B cells. Nevertheless, her blood cells completely failed to secrete IgG and IgE after stimulation with anti-CD40 antibody (to mimic the effects of engagement of CD40L) and IL-4, a cytokine that also helps to stimulate class switching, although the blood cells proliferated normally in response to these stimuli. cDNAs for CD40 and for the enzyme activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID) were made and amplified by RT-PCR on mRNA isolated from blood lymphocytes activated by anti-CD40 and IL-4. Sequencing of the cDNAs revealed a point mutation in the AID gene that introduced a stop codon into exon 5, leading to the formation of truncated and defective protein. The CD40 sequence was normal.

Q1: Daisy and other patients with hyper IgM syndrome caused by a mutation in AID do not seem to suffer from opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jirovecii and Cryptosporidium,which are characteristic of CD40L deficiency. Why?

Q2:A three year old girl presents with hyper IgM syndrome, recurrent bacterial infection, and history of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Her CD40L and AID genes are normal. What is the potential gene defect in this patient?

Q3: 6 year old girl presents with hyper IgM syndrome, recurrent bacterial infection, and no history of opportunistic infections. Her CD40 and AID genes sequences are normal. What is the potential gene defect in this patient?

Q4: Can you think of a simple test to distinguish hyper IgM syndrome caused by an intrinsic B cell defect from that caused by CD40L deficiency without recourse to DNA sequencing?

Q5: Dr James noted that Daisy had enlarged lymph nodes. Patients with CD40L deficiency do not have enlarged lymph nodes. Can you explain this difference?

8.What is the inflammation of the glomeruli within the kidney due to infection?

50. What is Renal cell carcinoma?

51. What is a malignant tumor of the kidneys (occuring in children)?

52. What is diabetes mellitus (DM)?

53. A term that means frequent (voluntary) urination at night is called.

54. What does BUN test (blood urea nitrogen) tell you?

55. What does creatine clearance test tell you?

56. What is a ultrasonography?

57. What is a image of kidney after injecting a radioisotope into the bloodstream.

58. What is Lithotripsy for? S

59. What is the difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis?

60. What is a renal biopsy?

61. What is cystoscopy?

62. What is interstitial cystitis?

63. What is lithotomy?

64. What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

65. Where are lymph nodes located in the body?

66. What attack bacteria and foreign cells; originate in the thymus gland?

67. What destroys foreign substances in the body?

68. What type of lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow?

69. What organ destroys old red blood cells?

70. What organ filters microorganisms and other foreign material out of the blood?

71. What organ is in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?

72. What gland provides immunity in fetal life and in early years of growth?

73. Name the body’s ability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that damage tissues and organs.

74. What type of immunity is resistance present at birth; not dependent on prior exposure to an antigen?

75. What type of cells produce antibodies after exposure to specific antigens?

76. What inhibit B and T cells and prevent them from attacking the body’s own good cells?

77. What type of cells recognize and digest foreign antigens?

78. What stimulate the patient’s own T cells to recognize and kill the cancerous cells?

79. Name the type of immunity with the ability to recognize and remember specific antigens and mount an attack on them?

80. Name the mass of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx.

81. What is the protein produced by B cells to destroy antigens?

82. What the location of Lymph nodes in the armpit?

83. What the location of Lymph nodes in the neck?

85. What are the proteins in the blood that help antibodies and kill their target?

86. What are antibodies secreted by plasma cells in response to the presence of an antigen?

87. What is the fluid in the spaces between cells?

88. What is a large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body?

89. Name an antibody produced in a laboratory to attack antigens and to destroy cells.

90. What is type of immunity that an individual is born with to fight infection?

91. Name the duct that drains lymph from the upper right part of body.

92. Name the duct that drains lymph from the lower and left side of body.

93. When the body recognizes and accepts the body’s own antigens as “self” or friendly?

94. What disorder destroys T cells and creates opportunistic infections?

95. What disorder produces blisters on skin of lips, nose, or genitals?

96. What disorder asssociated with AIDS that may cause pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis?

97. What drug inhibits viral enzyme called reverse transcriptase.

98. Name the disorder abnormal sensitivity acquired by exposure to antigen.

99. Name the cancer that is a malignant tumor of the thymus.

100. What is a malignant condition associated with AIDS?

101. This test detects anti-HIV antibodies; Western blot given as follow-up.

102. This test measures the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in the bloodstream.

103. These x-ray views show abnormalities of lymphoid organs.

104. Name the malignant tumor of the lymph nodes and spleen marked by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph nodes.

105. What disorder is typically associated with heightened immune responses to common allergens?

1. What is the name of the connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber?

Select one:

a. Perimysium

b. Endomysium

c. Sarcolemma

d. Epimysium

2. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Select one:

a. Large motor units are recruited for fine/precise movements and innervate ~1000-2000 muscle fibers

b. Large motor units are recruited for coarse movements and innervate ~1000-2000 muscle fibers

c. Small motor units are recruited for coarse movements and innervate as few as 10 muscle fibers

d. Small motor units are recruited for coarse movements and innervate ~1000-2000 muscle fibers

3. What is the definition of a motor unit?

Select one:

a. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

b. A motor neuron and all the motor units it innervates

c. A motor fiber and all the muscle neurons it innervates

d. A muscle unit and all the motor fibers it innervates

4.What is the name of the specific neurotransmitter secreted at the axon terminal of a motor neuron into the synapse of the neuromuscular junction?

Select one:

a. Acetylcholine

b. Adenosine Triphosphate

c. Testosterone

d. Acetyl CoA

5. _____________ is the thin contractile protein that contains the regulatory protein ______________ which calcium ions bind to, initiating muscular contraction.

Select one:

a. myosin, troponin

b. actin, troponin

c. actin, tropomyosin

d. myosin, tropomyosin

6. Which of the following is one of the training adaptions specific to strength "resistance" training?

Select one:

a. Increased oxygen extraction from the blood by active muscles

b. Increased glycolytic enzyme activity

c. Increased number and size of mitochondria

d. Increased motor units recruited

7. Strength training results in increased size of myofibrilar proteins

Select one:

True

False

8. Water composition in skeletal muscles account for nearly _____ percent of muscle weight

Select one:

a. 75

b. 55

c. 65

d. 85

9. Which of the following has been scientifically proven to reduce muscle cramps?

Select one:

a. Injecting calcium gluconate or magnesium sulfate into the localized area

b. Taking a spoonful of mustard

c. Drinking pickle juice

d. Eating bananas

10. Which of the following is currently the accepted theory as to why muscles feel tight when stretched?

Select one:

a. Weak tendons stimulate a contraction response

b. Titin molecules being stretched

c. Actin and myosin filaments become overlapped

d. Increased tension in the connective tissues surrounding the muscles

11. Two individuals starting at the same strength and fitness characteristics begin a training program. These individuals are also both highly motivated. They will end up with the same training adaptations as long as they both make sure they are fully rested, hydrated, maintain a healthy diet, and have nothing wrong with their nervous, endocrine or immune systems.

Select one:

True

False

12. What is one of the main reasons why fit people who detrain get back into shape faster compared to inexperienced exercisers?

Select one:

a. Increased content of contractile proteins in muscle cells

b. Proliferation of satellite cells causes increase mitochondrial content in the muscles

c. Increased plasma volume initially in the first 2 weeks of a training program

d. Increased number of nuclei remain after training

13. Which of the following is a reason why Type II fibers are better suited for fast, powerful movements?

Select one:

a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is better at cycling calcium

b. More mitochondrial content

c. Slower myosin ATPase activity

d. Increased blood vessel quantity around the area

14. Research has shown that up to _____ percent of aerobic performance may be determined by genetics

Select one:

a. 50

b. 17

c. 10

d. 6

15. In general, muscles need to be damaged in order for them to get bigger (hypertrophy)

Select one:

True

False

1. An asystole arrhythmia is treated with BLANK to cause vasoconstriction and increase the flow of blood to the heart and brain.

A beta-blockers

B.epinephrine

C.atropin.

2.

Rick Davis, a 50-year-old white man, was brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Davis was alert and coherent and was asked a series of questions. The patient said he had been outside playing basketball with his two sons when he felt “funny.” Elaborating, the patient said he became light-headed and short of breath. He also mentioned that he became nauseated and felt pressure in his chest. His sons panicked and called 911 for help.

Based on the signs and symptoms, the condition the physician states is likely to have occurred is

A.congestive heart disease

B.myocardial infarction

C.valvular heart disease

3.

Rick Davis, a 50-year-old white man, was brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Davis was alert and coherent and was asked a series of questions. The patient said he had been outside playing basketball with his two sons when he felt “funny.†Elaborating, the patient said he became light-headed and short of breath. He also mentioned that he became nauseated and felt pressure in his chest. His sons panicked and called 911 for help. Various tests are performed to determine whether the man had a heart attack. One way to find out for sure is a blood test that looks for certain enzymes that are released when a myocardial infarction has occurred. BLANK is one of those enzymes.

A.troponin

B.high-density lipoprotein

C.triglycerides

4.Coumadin belongs to the BLANK class.

A.beta blockers

B.thrombolytics

C.blood thinners

5.An 81-year-old woman named Phyllis has gone to her primary care physician for a regular checkup. Before her appointment was over, the physician reviewed her current medications with her and asked if she had any questions about them.

Phyllis asked the doctor why she is taking Inderal.

a. To thin the blood to prevent blood clots

b. To help break up a blood clot

c. To treat high blood pressure

6.

An 81-year-old woman named Phyllis has gone to her primary care physician for a regular checkup. Before her appointment was over, the physician reviewed her current medications with her and asked if she had any questions about them. Phyllis then asked which of her drugs is a cholesterol medicine (statin)?

a. Crestor

b. Nitroglycerin

c. Lopressor

7.

A 68-year-old woman arrives at her physician's office with the following signs and symptoms:

• Pale coloration of the right leg
• Muscle cramps and pain in the right leg
• Intermittent claudication
• The right foot has a cooler temperature to the touch when compared to other limbs
• Poor nail growth on the right foot

To help determine if the patient has peripheral artery disease, an angiography can be performed.

a. True b. False

8.

A 68-year-old woman arrives at her physician's office with the following signs and symptoms:Pale coloration of the right legMuscle cramps and pain in the right legIntermittent claudicationThe right foot has a cooler temperature to the touch when compared to other limbsPoor nail growth on the right foot After the completion of various diagnostic tests, the physician was confident in her diagnosis of peripheral artery disease. Now the patient can be treated appropriately.Which of the following drugs can be given for a vasodilator effect that both improves circulation and decreases platelets from sticking together?

a. Plavix

b. Niacor

c. Activase

d. Pletal

9.

Which group of drugs can be used for patients with PAD to help decrease their cholesterol?

a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

b. Statins

c. Calcium channel blockers

d. Beta blockers