Questions
Question 1 Methods for transmission of zoonotic pathogens include: A. Contact with the skin B. Bite...

Question 1

Methods for transmission of zoonotic pathogens include:

A.

Contact with the skin

B.

Bite or scratch of an animal

C.

Direct inhalation

D.

Ingestion of contaminated foods

E.

All of the above

Question 2

In the 20th century, decades of progress in reducing mortality due to acute infectious diseases was reversed due to

A.

Decreased public health funding

B.

HIV/AIDS pandemic

C.

Increased focus on chronic diseases

D.

None of the above

Question 3

Pregnant women and ___________experience the highest rates of malaria morbidity and mortality.

A.

the elderly

B.

adolescents

C.

young children

D.

none of the above

Question 4

The principle modes of transmission of hepatitis C (HCV) in low and middle income countries are believed to be:

A.

Sexual intercourse and skin-piercing

B.

Needle sharing among injection drug users and perinatal transmission

C.

Reuse of needles for medical injections and the transfusion of unscreened blood

D.

None of the above

Question 5

The causative agent for dengue fever is a:

A.

Bacterium

B.

Virus

C.

Rickettsial agent

D.

Parasite

E.

Prion

Question 6

Both self-limited and persistent diarrhea can have a substantial and negative impact on child growth through which of the following mechanisms

A.

Malabsorption of nutrients and reduced intake due to vomiting

B.

Loss of appetite

C.

Undesirable changes in feeding practices

D.

All of the above

Question 7

Underlying virtually every infectious disease of public health importance in low- and middle-income countries is the significant role played by poverty and its associated problems including

A.

Malnutrition

B.

Poor access to clean water

C.

Improper sanitation

D.

All of the above

Question 8

It has been estimated that approximately_____of the world’s population is infected with M. tuberculosis.

A.

60%

B.

50%

C.

33%

D.

25%

E.

None of the above

Question 9

The definition of emerging zoonoses covers:

A.

Only new and unknown agents

B.

Both new and previously known agents

C.

Appearance of agents in regions not usually affected

D.

B and C

E.

None of the above

Question 10

True or false? Malaria is a disease caused by the parasitic Plasmodium protozoa.

True

False

Question 11

In what sense is influenza a zoonotic disease?

A.

It has animal reservoirs, especially birds and swine.

B.

It is transmitted by “stealth” arthropods.

C.

It is transmitted frequently by contact with wool.

D.

The main reservoir is wild carnivores.

E.

None of the above

Question 12

Methods for the control of malaria include:

A.

Insecticidal nets

B.

Intermittent preventive treatment during pregnancy

C.

Diagnosis which is prompt

D.

Other vector controls, such as larvaciding and environmental management

E.

All of the above

Question 13

Although malaria is found in 109 countries around the world, more than 80% of cases occur in:

A.

South Asia.

B.

Latin America.

C.

Tropical Africa.

D.

India.

E.

None of the above

Question 14

Identify the correct fact about rabies:

A.

Human cases of rabies occur frequently in the United States.

B.

Post-exposure prophylaxis has prevented human rabies successfully.

C.

Outside the United States, the most common vector is Gambian rats.

D.

The disease has a low to medium fatality rate.

E.

All of the above.

Question 15

_____________produces the most dramatic fluid losses of any enteric infection and causes death within 24-48 hours.

A.

dysentery

B.

typhoid

C.

cholera

D.

measles

E.

none of the above

Question 16

True or false? Chronic infection contributes to the pathogenesis of a number of chronic diseases, such as certain cancers.

True

False

Question 17

________is the single most important predictor of developing pneumonia or lower respiratory tract infections.

A.

low birth weight

B.

malnutrition

C.

indoor air pollution

D.

age

Question 18

Children experience the highest risk of developing enteric infections between__________and then the risk declines steadily thereafter.

A.

one and four months

B.

three and six months

C.

six and eleven months

D.

one to two years

Question 19

The major known risk factors for morbidity and mortality from lower respiratory tract infections include low birth weight, age, malnutrition, not breastfeeding and________.

A.

measles

B.

high blood pressure

C.

exposure to indoor air pollution

D.

obesity

E.

none of the above

Question 20

The 1970’s saw the successful eradication of ___________ using a combination of enhanced case finding, containment and vaccination.

A.

polio

B.

leprosy

C.

rabies

D.

trachoma

E.

smallpox

Question 21

Many international health professionals consider the most important contribution of public health in the 20th century and possibly in all of recorded history to be:

A.

the improvements in sanitation and access to clean water

B.

the reduction in smoking

C.

the development of antibiotics

D.

the eradication of smallpox

Question 22

The reduction of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity or mortality to a locally acceptable level as a result of deliberate efforts is called:

A.

control

B.

elimination

C.

eradication

D.

extinction

E.

none of the above

Question 23

The most daunting challenges confronting the treatment and control of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in low- and middle-income countries, beyond changing human behavior, include

A.

Lack of simple, inexpensive diagnostic tests

B.

Lack of readily accessible, inexpensive, easy-to-administer single-dose treatments

C.

Frequency with which STIs are asymptomatic

D.

All of the above

In: Nursing

Question Follow the below statement and compile a formal report on the Wastewater treatment. The report...

Question

Follow the below statement and compile a formal report on the Wastewater treatment. The report should have following elements: title, table of content, list of tables, executive summary, introduction, main body, conclusion, recommendation, bibliography and properly numbered pages.

Wastewater Treatment Water Us

Wastewater is used water. It includes substances such as human waste, food scraps, oils, soaps and chemicals. In homes, this includes water from sinks, showers, bathtubs, toilets, washing machines and dishwashers. Businesses and industries also contribute their share of used water that must be cleaned.

Why Treat Wastewater?

There are a lot of good reasons why keeping our water clean is an important priority: fisheries, wildlife habitats, recreation and quality of life and health concerns.

If wastewater is not properly treated, then the environment and human health can be negatively impacted. These impacts can include harm to fish and wildlife populations, oxygen depletion, beach closures and other restrictions on recreational water use, restrictions on fish and shellfish harvesting and contamination of drinking water. Some examples of pollutants that can be found in wastewater and the potentially harmful effects these substances can have on ecosystems and human health:

  • Decaying organic matter and debris can use up the dissolved oxygen in a lake so fish and other aquatic biota cannot survive;
  • Excessive nutrients, such as phosphorus and nitrogen (including ammonia), can cause eutrophication, or over-fertilization of receiving waters, which can be toxic to aquatic organisms, promote excessive plant growth, reduce available oxygen, harm spawning grounds, alter habitat and lead to a decline in certain species;
  • Chlorine compounds and inorganic chloramines can be toxic to aquatic invertebrates, algae and fish;

Wastewater treatment

The major aim of wastewater treatment is to remove as much of the suspended solids as possible before the remaining water, called effluent, is discharged back to the environment. As solid material decays, it uses up oxygen, which is needed by the plants and animals living in the water.

"Primary treatment" removes about 60 percent of suspended solids from wastewater. This treatment also involves aerating (stirring up) the wastewater, to put oxygen back in. Secondary treatment removes more than 90 percent of suspended solids.

The use of reclaimed wastewater helps people in two ways:

  1. Reclaimed water can supply needed water for some purposes
  2. Reclaimed wastewater frees up fresh water that can be used somewhere else, such as for drinking water

Uses of reclaimed wastewater

URBAN USES

Irrigation of public parks, sporting facilities, private gardens, roadsides; Street cleaning; Fire protection systems; Vehicle washing; Toilet flushing; Air conditioners; Dust control.

AGRICULTURAL USES

Food crops not commercially processed; Food crops commercially processed; Pasture for milking animals; Fodder; Fiber; Seed crops; Ornamental flowers; Orchards etc

RECREATIONAL USES

Golf course irrigation; Recreational impoundments with/without public access (e.g. fishing, boating, bathing); Aesthetic impoundments without public access; Snowmaking.

ENVIRONMENTAL USES

Aquifer recharge; Wetlands; Marshes; Stream augmentation; Wildlife habitat; Silviculture.

POTABLE (DRINKABLE) USES

Aquifer recharge for drinking water use; Augmentation of surface drinking water supplies; Treatment until drinking water quality.

THE PRIMARY TREATMENT PROCESS

1. Screening

Wastewater entering the treatment plant includes items like wood, rocks, and even dead animals. Unless they are removed, they could cause problems later in the treatment process. Most of these materials are sent to a landfill.

2. Pumping

The wastewater system relies on the force of gravity to move sewage from your home to the treatment plant. So wastewater-treatment plants are located on low ground, often near a river into which treated water can be released. If the plant is built above the ground level, the wastewater has to be pumped up to the aeration tanks (item 3). From here on, gravity takes over to move the wastewater through the treatment process.

3. Aerating

One of the first steps that a water treatment facility can do is to just shake up the sewage and expose it to air. This causes some of the dissolved gases (such as hydrogen sulfide, which smells like rotten eggs) that taste and smell bad to be released from the water. Wastewater enters a series of long, parallel concrete tanks. Each tank is divided into two sections. In the first section, air is pumped through the water.

4. Removing sludge

Wastewater then enters the second section or sedimentation tanks. Here, the sludge (the organic portion of the sewage) settles out of the wastewater and is pumped out of the tanks. Some of the water is removed in a step called thickening and then the sludge is processed in large tanks called digesters.

5. Removing scum

As sludge is settling to the bottom of the sedimentation tanks, lighter materials are floating to the surface. This 'scum' includes grease, oils, plastics, and soap. Slow-moving rakes skim the scum off the surface of the wastewater. Scum is thickened and pumped to the digesters along with the sludge.

6. Killing bacteria

Finally, the wastewater flows into a 'chlorine contact' tank, where the chemical chlorine is added to kill bacteria, which could pose a health risk, just as is done in swimming pools. The chlorine is mostly eliminated as the bacteria are destroyed, but sometimes it must be neutralized by adding other chemicals. This protects fish and other marine organisms, which can be harmed by the smallest amounts of chlorine.

In: Operations Management

12. What is the primary aim of the scientific method? A. To formulate a hypothesis B....

12. What is the primary aim of the scientific method? A. To formulate a hypothesis B. To introduce new variables into an ExperimentC. To include control groups in an experiment D. To modify an Experiment E. To discard the results if they do not support the hypothesis.
13. Supporters of spontaneous generation believe in the theory of biogenesis. True or false14. Louise pastors experiments discounted the theory of abiogenesis true or false
15. Hey Siri is a? E. Collection of statements, for positions, or concepts that explain or accounts for a natural event B. Prediction C. Process of experimentation D. Tentative explanation to account for what has been observed or measured 16. Joseph Lister’s concept of a sepsis in the medical setting consisted of what procedure? A. The practice of the handwashing B. The use of an autoclave C. Do use of antibiotics D. Do use of gloves 17. Which of the following is the largest in size? A.Escherichia coli(bacteria)B. Amoeba proteus (protozoa)C.Poliovirus (virus) D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis/Tuberculosis E.Bacillus anthacis/Anthrax
19. The smallest and most specific of the levels of classification is species. What level of classification is directly above species A.period domainB.familyC. Genus D. Phylum20. What time refers to the degree of evolutionary relatednessBetween living organisms? A. Morphology B. Physiology C. Hierarchy . Phylogeny
21. Which of the following statements regarding evolution is correct? A. Change is that favor survival or lost B.Living things change rapidly through millions of yearsC. Evolution results and structural and functional changes in organisms D. Changes that are not beneficial are preserved 22. Who is fox used what cell component in the classification of organisms into three domains? A.mRNA B.Protiens C.rRNA D.none of the above
23. Micro organisms can be found in all natural habitats. This defines micro organisms as being? A. Microscopic B. Eukaryotic C. Parasitic D. ubiquitous
24. The prokaryotic cell structure includes A. Nucleus, mitochondria B. Ribosomes, cell membranes C. All of the above D. None of the above


25.Regarding the involvement of micro organisms and energy and nutrient flow
A. Bacteria and fungi are important and decomposition
B. Algae are characterized as photosynthetic
C. All of the above are correct
D. None of the above is correct

26. The terms parasite, hots, pathogen, biofilms, and epidemiology are associated with:
A. The role of microorganisms in defomposition
B. The role of microorganisms in bio-remediation
C. The role of viruses in the infectious disease process
D. The role of microorganisms in the infectious disease process
E. None if the above

27. The scientific method can be summarized as:
A. A process
B. Observation, hypothesis, experiment, assessment of data, conclusion
C. All the above

28.in the development of medical microbiology;
A.ferdinand Cohn discovered heat-resistant bacterial spores
B. Robert Koch linked specific organism to specific diseases
C.louis pasteur and Roberts clutch advance the germ theory of disease D. All of the above are correct E. None of the above is correct number

29 the formal system of organizing classifying and naming organisms is called A. Morphology B. Physiology C. Here Archie D. Phylogeny E. None of the above number

30. The horse fox system of classification contain’s a. The domains you Eukarya, archaea, bacteria
B. The kingdoms plants, fungi, animals, protists, Monerans, C. All of the above D. None of the above

Chapter No. 2
31. The simplest form of matter not the visible into simpler substances is? 32. Positively charged subatomic particles are? 33. Neutral subatomic particles are? 34. Negatively charged subatomic particles? 35. A pure substances with a chair at the rustic number of protons, Neutrons, and electrons? 36. The atomic number? 37. The number of protons and neutrons is the? 38. Verriant forms of the same element that differ in the number of neutrons are? 39. The space surrounding the atomic nucleus where electrons are likely to be found? 40. A chemical substance that results from the combination of two or more Adams? 41. Chemical? Are formed when two or more atoms share, donate, or except electrons to form molecules. 42. Chemical bonding where electrons are shared among Adams are? 43. Chemical bonding where electrons are transferred to one Adam forming positively charged cations and negatively charged and ions? 44. Chemical bonding that is described as weak bonds between hydrogen and other Adams?

45. Regarding covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds, the following is true a period is covalent bonds electrons are shared among Adams be. In ionic bonds, electrons are transferred to one Adam forming (+) cations and (-) anions C. Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds between hydrogen and other Adams D. All of the above are correct E. None of the above are correct 46. Reactants also called substrates are molecules that start a reaction and products are substances left by a reaction. True or false 47. The pH scale express is the concentration of H plus ions, and it ranges from A.0 to 7 B. 1 to 14 C. 0 to 14 D. None of the above 48. Organic chemicals are compounds containing carbon bonded to nitrogen Adams. True or false 49. Carbon see is the fundamental element of life and eight. Contains four Adams and it’s our orbital be. Can form single, double, or triple covalent bonds see. Can form linear, branched, Or ringed moleculesD. All of the above are correct E. None of the above are correct 50. Biochemicals are organic compounds produced by living things and include A Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acid’s E. All of the above are correct letter F. None of the above are correct51. In Marco molecules large are compounds assembled from smaller subunits. A monomer is a subunit and a polymer is a chain of monomers. true or false
52. Proteins pre-dominant molecules and cells,There monomers are the 20 amino acids, and there are polymers are peptides, polypeptides, proteins. There are some units are linked by peptide bonds. Which of the following protein characteristics are true A proteins fold into very specific 3-D shapes B proteins function as support, enzymes, transport, defense, movement C all of the above are correct D none of the above are correct 53. DNA the deoxyribonucleic acid. DNA is formed by two long poly nucleotide strands linked by hydrogen bonds, the following is also threw a. A, C, C, GR nitrogen bases B. The DNA molecule is a double helix C. DNA functions as hereditary material
D. All of the above are correct E. None of the above are correct chapter 4. 54. Peptidoglycans, dipicolinic acid, and mycolic acid are chemicals. They are: Letter a. Associated with cell Walls and their function is protection B. Associated with the cell membranes and their function is protection C. All of the above are correct D. None of the above are correct 55. Steroids are chemicals found in pleomorphic Mycoplasma plasma. They are: E. Associated with cell walls and their function is protection B. Associated with the cell membrane and their function is protection C. All of the above are correct D. None of the above are correct 56. The cell membrane cytoplasmic membrane A. Has a phospholipid Byler B. Has it embedded proteins C. Is the conceptualized in the fluid Mosaic model D. All of the above
57. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the bacterial cell wall? Hey. Is it a target of certain antibiotics B. It determines the shape of the bacterium C. It prevents a bacterium from bursting due to changes in osmotic pressure D. It’s comeposition where is among the major bacterial groups E. It is composed of repeating framework of lipids 58. Which of the following is incorrect regarding plasmids? E. They are extra chromosomal B. They Can become integrated into the bacterial chromosome C. They can come for protective traits D. They are essential for bacterial growth and survival E. They are important in genetic engineering techniques 59. Identification of bacteria requires a study of all but which of the following? A. Microscopic and macroscopic morphologyB. Bacterial physiology C. Quantitive analysis D. Serological analysis E. Genetic and molecular analysis

60. What is the structure of each of these functions
60. Adhesion 61. Proteins Synthesis 62. Selective permeability 63. Protective, pathogenicity 64. Site of mini bio chemical reactions 70 to 80% water 65. Iocomotion, chemotaxis 66. Nutrient storage (glycogen,PHB)
67. Conjunction 68. Protection from dehydration 69. Heat resistance(linked to calcium and dipicolinic acid) 70. Play a role infected catheters ,IUDs, artificial hip joints

Here are the key Structures for Questions 60 to 70
KEY:Flagella, endospores, so membrane, inclusion body, cytoplasmic matrix, ribosomes, cell-capsule, fimbriae, slime layer, Pilus, biofilms

Chapter No. 5
What are the eukaryotic structure of each of these functions
71. Generation of energy ATP 72. Site of ribosomes in you create excels 73. Locomotion 74. Location of chromosomes and nucleolus75. Convert sunlight energy into chemical energy such as algae and plants 76. Synthesis of nine proteins such as lipids 77. And enzyme found in tears saliva 78. Contains a verity of enzymes79. Collects and packages proteins

Here are the key for question 71 through 79
KEY:Lysosome, mitochondria, nucleus, lysozyme, Goldi-apparatus , flagella, cilia,pseudopia, PER, SER, chloroplasts, nucleus
80. Helminthes include: A. Roundworms(Nematodes) B. Tapeworms (cestodes)C. Flukes(Trematodes) D. all of the above E. None of the above
81. The cell walls of fungi are composed of what? A. Peptide Dougla can be. Chitin or cellulose C. All of the above D. None of the above
82. Where does RNA synthesis in Eukaryotes occur?
83. Asexual reproduction in fungi occurs by what process? A. Binary fission B. Meiosis C. Nuclear fusion D. Mitosis
84. Which of the following defines a lysosome? A. The Sicle that originates from the gold Golgi apparatus and contains a veriety of enzymesB a membrane bound sack contains fluids or solid particles to be digested see. A buck you all that contains reserve nutrients D. A vac you are that regulates osmotic pressure 85. Which of the following is correct regarding chloroplasts? K. They are the primary producers of organic nutrients B. They are found In LG and plant cells letter C. Oxygen gas is produced as a byproduct of their activities D. They convert the energy of sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis E. All of the above are correct.
89. All fungi utilize what as a nutritional substrate? A. Organic nutrients be. Carbon dioxide C. Inorganic ions D. Hydrant sulfide
86. What is formed when hyphae of two opposite fungi strains fuse in form diploidy spores?Sporangium, ConidiaB. Basidiospores, zygospores, Ascospores
C.All of the above are correct 87. What statement regarding the fungi is incorrect? E. Many species are pathogenic to field crops B. Fungi decomposed organic matter in return essential minerals to the soil C. They can be used to produce large quantities of antibiotics, alcohol, anod vitamins D. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are incorrect

In: Biology

1) "Quality lies in the eyes of the beholder" is: A) an unrealistic definition of quality...

1) "Quality lies in the eyes of the beholder" is:
A) an unrealistic definition of quality B) a user-based definition of quality. C) a manufacturing-based definition of quality. D) a product-based definition of quality. E) the definition of quality proposed by the American Society for Quality.
 
2) Which of the four major categories of quality costs is particularly hard to quantify?
A) prevention costs B) appraisal costs C) internal failure costs D) external failure costs E) None is hard to quantify
 
3) "Quality Is Free," meaning that the costs of poor quality have been understated, is the work of:
A) W. Edwards Deming. B) Joseph M. Juran. C) Philip B. Crosby. D) Crosby, Stills, and Nash. E) Armand Feigenbaum.
 
4) Three broad categories of definitions of quality are:
A) product quality, service quality, and organizational quality. B) user based, manufacturing based, and product based. C) internal, external, and prevention. D) low-cost, response, and differentiation. E) Pareto, Shewhart, and Deming.
 
5) A production manager at a pottery factory has noticed that about 70 percent of defects result from impurities in raw materials, 15 percent result from human error, 10 percent from machine malfunctions, and 5 percent from a variety of other causes. This manager is most likely using:
A) a Pareto chart. B) a scatter diagram. C) a quality loss function. D) a cause-and-effect diagram. E) a flowchart.
 
6) Poka-yoke is the Japanese term for
A) card. B) foolproof. C) continuous improvement. D) fishbone diagram. E) just-in-time production.

In: Other

Pease give a two to three sentence response for each statement below. for example, You can agree or disagree with the statements & why or why not?


Pease give a two to three sentence response for each statement below. for example, You can agree or disagree with the statements & why or why not?

You can add to the statements or ask questions. these statements are about statistics and how its used in healthcare.

A) Nurses use statistics to determine if nursing interventions are effective for patient care. Nurse can use the data to recognize trends that could affect the patients. Some examples of how nurses can use statistics would be with medication side effects and vital signs. I think statistics are a vital part in nursing because it allow us to make the best decision for the care of the patient

B)I can not imagine today's professional environment without accountability, control, and a clear picture of what is going on at every moment in any business. In the medical world, the aspect of statistics becomes even more important. As medical professionals we don't have room for error, we have human lives in our hands. It is important to know exactly how any medication will affect a patient and also have to be aware of the time factor of that effect when providing critical care to the patients. Following protocols established by the doctors is essential in the positive outcome for many of our patients. Statistics serve as a vital tool in understanding and delivering those protocols in our daily routine. I believe that understanding, knowledge, and application of statistics is essential for nurses. The nurses' job is to know exactly how to read the chart, gather and analyze the data, and also apply appropriate protocols in administering specific medicines to patients. Knowledge of statistics is important because a wrong combination of medicines could be dangerous or even result in a patient's death.

In: Nursing

Life insurance is considered a valued policy becauseA.Life insurance covers longevity risk.B.The...

Life insurance is considered a valued policy because


A.

Life insurance covers longevity risk.


B.

The insurance payout is a pre-determined face amount and has nothing to do with the actual amount of loss of human life.


C.

Life insurance allows for ownership transfer.


D.

There is no money back if policyholders surrender their policies.

Which of the following is true about the various requirements of a qualified retirement benefit plan?


A.

Advance funding is required for qualified defined-benefit plans.


B.

There is no tax consequence if an employee keeps working past the age of 70 ½ and still hasn’t started liquidating funds in his qualified retirement plans.


C.

There is no limit on how much employers and employees can contribute to a qualified pension plan on a tax deductible basis.


D.

If the employee chooses to take out retirement income before age 59 1/2, he may be subjected to a tax penalty.

Which of the following statements is true?


A.

Death bonds investment is positively correlated with stock market investment.


B.

When a property insurance policy is transferred (sold) to an investor, the investor is said to have invested in death bonds.


C.

Death bonds are highly regulated by the government.


D.

Investors of death bonds make more money if the insured dies earlier.

Lucy owns a nice coffee house near the beach. She has some antique tables and beautiful mugs in the coffee house, which draw in quite some customers for her. Which of the following is Lucy’s real property?


A.

Customers


B.

Antique tables


C.

The house


D.

The beautiful mugs

Which of the following is an example of tangible property?


A.

Patent


B.

Office building


C.

Reputation


D.

Electronic medical records

In: Operations Management

1.Consumers spraying their lawns for control of white grubs with the formulation Dursban prior to its...

1.Consumers spraying their lawns for control of white grubs with the formulation Dursban prior to its removal from hardware stores like Home Depot and Ace were estimated to have a high end exposure of about 0.015 mg/kg/day. Considering that this product would only be applied once or twice a growing season, the margin of exposure (MOE) relative to the acute no observable adverse effect level (NOEL or NOAEL) of 0.5 mg/kg/day is [______]. This exposure is [_______] (above or lower) EPAs levels of concern (LOC).

2. Although Roundup is more toxic than its active ingredient alone, cause for concern should a wetland be oversprayed is unlikely due to a short persistence time of the toxicant causing this differential effect. The reason for this short persistence time is the presence in natural waters of [__________________].

3. The work of Tyrone Hayes at the University of California-Berkeley has suggested that atrazine herbicide disrupts the endocrine system. Some scientists suggest therefore that frogs should be used as “canaries in a coal mine” and forewarn us about the imminent danger that this herbicide poses to human fertility and development. The plausibility of such an extrapolation is weak for which of the following reasons. (Choose all reasons that support the lack of plausibility)

a.The aggregate of all research on atrazine in a quantitative weight of evidence meta analysis concluded that effects on amphibian development and growth were unlikely

b. Studies published subsequent to Hayes early research were not able to repeat the observations of effects on frogs

c. Atrazine residues are hardly ever found in food, thus exposures would be minimized.

d. Atrazine residues are hardly ever found in water, thus exposures would be minimized.

In: Biology

Estimating the time of a victim’s death during homicide investigations is a complex problem that cannot be solved by analysising simple equations or functions of one variable.

Estimating the time of a victim’s death during homicide investigations is a complex problem that cannot be solved by analysising simple equations or functions of one variable. However, many mathematical texts examine time of death estimation based around analysis of Newton’s Law of Cooling. Such analysis is based on implicit simplifying assumptions that: the only dependent variable of interest in determining the time of death is the victim’s body temperature, T(t); the victim’s baseline body temperature when alive, T0, is known; and the air temperature of the victim’s surroundings, Ts, is constant. Here we will examine such a problem.


(a) Assume that immediately following death, a victim’s body begins to cool from a standard healthy body temperature of 37◦ Celsius. Further, assume that experimental work has determined that the rate constant in Newton’s Law of Cooling for a human body is approximately k = 0.1947 when time t is measured in hours. Determine a function derived from Newton’s Law of Cooling, T(t), that models the temperature of a victim’s body t hours after death, assuming that the temperature of the body’s surroundings is a constant 15.5◦ Celsius

. (b) If the temperature of the victim’s body is now 22.2◦, how long ago was their time of death? (c) If the victim’s body temperature at death had instead been 36.3◦ Celsius (within the range of normal body temperatures for a healthy adult), what time of death would be estimated via a Newton’s Law of Cooling model? By what duration does this estimate differ to the time that you determined in part

(b)? (d) In reality, how might the modelling assumptions made to address this problem be violated?

In: Math

Thirdhand smoke (THS) is the fraction of cigarette smoke that persists in indoor environments after smoking.

 

Thirdhand smoke (THS) is the fraction of cigarette smoke that persists in indoor environments after smoking. We investigated the effects of neonatal and adult THS exposure on bodyweight and blood cell populations in C57BL/6 J mice. At the end of neonatal exposure, THS-treated male and female mice had significantly lower bodyweight than their respective control mice. However, five weeks after neonatal exposure ended, THS-treated mice weighed the same as controls. In contrast, adult THS exposure did not change bodyweight of mice. On the other hand, both neonatal and adult THS exposure had profound effects on the hematopoietic system. Fourteen weeks after neonatal THS exposure ended, eosinophil number and platelet volume were significantly higher, while hematocrit, mean cell volume, and platelet counts were significantly lower compared to control. Similarly, adult THS exposure also decreased platelet counts and increased neutrophil counts. Moreover, both neonatal and adult THS exposure caused a significant increase in percentage of B-cells and significantly decreased percentage of myeloid cells. Our results demonstrate that neonatal THS exposure decreases bodyweight and that THS exposure induces persistent changes in the hematopoietic system independent of age at exposure. These results also suggest that THS exposure may have adverse effects on human health.

  1. Do the data support the author’s conclusions? Which findings were used to support specific conclusion(s) and why do such findings support this conclusion (rather than some other conclusion) Specifically link three results with the conclusion they support.

In: Biology

Question 214 pts If the world price is above the domestic “no-trade” equilibrium price, then with...

Question 214 pts

If the world price is above the domestic “no-trade” equilibrium price, then with international trade, the shortage caused in the domestic market can be met by foreign imports.

True
False

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Question 224 pts

Firms in industrial countries find a larger market for their goods in other industrial countries than in developing countries because:

the industrial countries tend to have a higher population than the developing countries.
the industrial countries are capital intensive countries.
the consumption patterns in the industrial countries are highly heterogeneous.
the trade policies of the industrial nations are more favorable than the developing countries.
the consumption patterns in the industrial countries are more or less uniform.

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Question 234 pts

A country benefits from trade if it is able to obtain a good from a foreign country:

by giving up less of other goods than it would have to give up to obtain the good at home.
that has a substantial number of substitutes in the domestic market.
that has a very low domestic demand.
by giving up more of other goods than it would have to give up to obtain the good at home.
the production of which requires a steady supply of unskilled labor.

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Question 244 pts

We know that industrial countries tend to trade with other industrial countries. This pattern counters the:

human skills theory of comparative advantage.
product life cycle theory of comparative advantage.
concept of intraindustry trade.
preference theory of comparative advantage.
factor abundance theory of comparative advantage.

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Question 254 pts

It seems evident that countries would have an advantage in producing those goods that use relatively large amounts of their most abundant factor of production.

True
False

In: Economics