In: Biology
you can search online and find information about the novel. I searched but I don't understand anything because the English not my native language I can't understand this novel to answer these question please help me (please my last chance please help)
Can you please help me with these Discussion Questions for Shelley’s Frankenstein:
Questions for Volume I:
The novel’s title page prompts readers to link Frankenstein with Prometheus. Familiarize yourself with Prometheus. In what way is the myth relevant to Shelley’s novel?
Describe Victor Frankenstein. What is his passion? What motivates him? What does he aim to accomplish by creating the monster?
What similarities exist between Walton and Victor Frankenstein?
What does the novel suggest so far regarding the importance of human relationships?
Where does the novel display tenets of Romanticism? In what ways are Romantic beliefs pitted against those of the Enlightenment?
Discuss Victor’s attitude toward his creation of the monster.
Make some conjecture as to what it is Victor hopes to impart to Walton in conveying the story of the monster and the ensuing events.
Where do you see the features of Gothicism evident?
In: Psychology
After reading Sohaira Siddiqui's article, answer the following questions:
According to Siddiqui, how does ISIS justify its actions based on the religious texts? Explain at least one of the detailed examples she provides.
How do ISIS' rulings and actions transgress the “objectives of the Shari'a” outlined by 11th century jurists, according to Siddiqui?
Finally, what is your opinion on the problem of scriptural interpretation (in any religious tradition)? In other words: Who gets to decide, ultimately, which interpretation of a sacred text is correct?
ARTICLE:
Isis Interpretation of Islamic Scripture By Sohaira Siddiqui About the author: Sohaira Siddiqui wrote a thoughtful post for Jadaliyya on how the Islamic State approaches the medieval scholastic tradition of Islamic jurisprudence. She’s an assistant professor of Islamic theology at Georgetown University's Qatar campus, so she’s got a lot to say on the subject of the Islamic State’s use of scripture. Sohaira Siddiqui: When reading materials released by ISIS or legal verdicts produced by their courts, ISIS relies upon various sources: sacred texts, namely the Quran and hadith, and the actions of the Prophet’s early companions and subsequent generations. These laws can be understood to either enhance the “dignity” of Muslims, to strike fear in the hearts and minds of their enemies, or to create a religiously ordered society. The use of scriptural sources and history is not only important for religiously legitimizing their actions, it also promotes their overall objectives. In other words, they subject scripture and history for their own political and religious motivations. Thus far, when Islamic scholars have assessed ISIS’s use of scripture, many have asserted that ISIS is literal and also cherry-picks from scripture to fulfill their desired objectives. While I agree, I would argue that ISIS ago engages with purpose based reasoning and thus often steps away from the literal meaning of texts when necessary. For example, in rationalizing the burning of the Jordanian pilot, ISIS first pointed to airstrikes carried out against Muslims, then referenced verse 126 in Sura al-Nahl which allows for commensurate retaliation, and finally ended with examples from the time of the Prophet and companions in which fire is used. In this case, an analogy is constructed between the effects of an airstrike and the deliberate burning of an individual. Here elements of purposive, not textual, reasoning are involved; that is striking fear into the minds of the enemies. To deliberately set alight an individual has only a tendentious link to the launch of missiles. Thus what appears to be a literal application of the right of commensurate punishment becomes more nuanced when analyzed in greater detail. Let us take another case which shows ISIS to go beyond the literal meaning of the text in order to suit their objectives. In part the notoriety that ISIS possesses is due to their propaganda videos and images which depict life within ISIS controlled areas. This depiction of human images, however, is contrary to a literalist reading of numerous prophetic hadith -- found in the canonical collection of Bukhari and Muslim -- which forbid the creation of pictures and the replication of the human image. In fact, many of the scholars which ISIS quote to support their actions vehemently prohibit the capturing of the human image. Their abandonment of explicit hadith demonstrates that they adopt a legal methodology which is scripturally-centric and literal, but flexible if literalism alone will circumvent their objectives. Combining reasoning from texts with purpose based reasoning is not something ISIS has newly invented. Classical jurists in the 11th century articulated that there are certain objectives of the Sharia, namely the preservation of life, religion, lineage, property and honor. While jurists were continuously engaged in deriving laws from the sources, the presence of these objectives functioned as a check and balance system which ensured that the laws they generated were in accordance with the objectives of the law as understood by God. These objectives were therefore derived from the Quran and sayings of the Prophet and were understood to represent divine intent with regards to the law. However, when ISIS is using purpose based reasoning, they are not concerned with what is the divine intent of the law is; rather they are concerned with creating laws which fulfill their own political desires. In this sense, what ISIS is engaged in resembles more religiously legitimated political reasoning than any attempt to holistically understand the texts or the overall objectives of the law.
In: Psychology
1. A patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy is receiving tamsulosin, a selective alpha1 blocker, to help improve urine flow. Which of the following health factors would the LPN/VN report to the healthcare provider before giving the drug?
1. The patient reports a history of allergy to sulfa antibiotics.
2. The patient had a history of smoking 15 years ago.
3. The patient is exercising three times a week.
4. The patient's potassium level is 4.0 mEq/mL.
2. The LPN/VN is teaching a patient about his sublingual NTG tablets for an onset of chest pain. Which of the following statements by the patient shows that he or she understands the teaching?
1. “I need to chew the NTG tablet thoroughly.”
2. “I will swallow the pill like all of my other heart pills.”
3. “I will place the NTG under my tongue when I have chest pain.”
4. “I like to take my NTG with applesauce so it tastes better.”
3. The patient has a history of acute angina. Which of the following should the LPN/VN teach the patient regarding taking NTG tablets for chest pain? (Select all that apply.)
1. Take one dose of NTG immediately at the onset of the pain. If the symptoms get a little better but do not go away, take the second dose 5 minutes later. You can even take a third dose 5 minutes after the second dose.
2. Take no more than three doses in 15 minutes.
3. Call emergency services if your symptoms do not improve or if they worsen after the first dose.
4. You may feel a slight burning under the tongue when you take the NTG.
5. Common side effects include light-headedness, muscle aches, and seizures.
6. The NTG will work better if you also dissolve an aspirin under your tongue at the same time.
4. The patient has started taking niacin for her high cholesterol. Which of the following side effects is common in patients taking niacin?
1. Hyperuricemia
2. Glucose tolerance
3. Flushing
4. Constipation
5. The patient is taking digoxin 0.125 mg every morning with breakfast for atrial fibrillation. The LPN/VN checks the apical pulse and determines the rate to be 58 beats/min. Which of the following actions is appropriate by the LPN/VN?
1. Ask the patient to drink a cup of coffee and return to the room in 1 hour to give the drug.
2. Hold the drug and notify the healthcare provider.
3. Give the drug and document in the medical record.
4. Give the drug and notify the healthcare provider.
6. Which of the following laboratory tests must be carefully monitored in a patient taking a loop diuretic?
1. Potassium level
2. Liver function studies
3. Arterial blood gases
4. Cholesterol level
7. Which of the following symptoms are associated with digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply.)
1. Nausea
2. Anorexia
3. Blurred vision
4. Constipation
5. Enlarged liver
6. Diarrhea
8. A patient is receiving a new statin drug for elevated cholesterol level. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for additional teaching?
1. “I can eat anything I want since I am now taking this drug.”
2. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I have any severe muscle aches or changes in my urine.
3. “I will need to have tests to make sure my liver is functioning properly as my doctor recommends.”
4. “I have to monitor my blood sugar daily because the drug can increase my blood sugar.”
10. Which of the following types of food should be avoided in patients taking angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
1. Foods high in folic acid, such as lentils and avocado
2. Foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables
3. Foods high in iron, such as red meat and salmon
4. Foods high in potassium, such as bananas and orange juice
11. Match the drug action with the drug class.
1. Slows the sodium pump in the distal tubule of the nephron
2. Decreases heart rate and decreases contractility of the heart
3. Blocks active transport of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle
4. Blocks the formation of angiotensin II
5. Causes vasodilation centrally by affecting receptors in the brain
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
b. Loop diuretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Alpha2-adrenergic agonist
e. Potassium-sparing diuretic
In: Nursing
VALERIE: Hi, Shen! Are the basics of aggregate demand and aggregate supply analysis essentially the same as microeconomic demand and supply analysis?
SHEN: There are a lot of similarities but there are some very important differences. A few of the key differences are that, when dealing with aggregate demand (AD) and aggregate supply (AS) curves, the vertical axis measures the price level and not just the price for one good or service and the horizontal axis measures aggregate output, or real GDP, and not just the quantity demanded and supplied for a specific good or service. Let’s see if you understand the fundamentals of aggregate demand and aggregate supply. Why does the aggregate demand (AD) curve slope downward? What could cause it to shift?
VALERIE: The aggregate demand (AD) curve is downward sloping because as price level decreases, buyers tend to purchase (LESS OR MORE) of all goods and services and the aggregate quantity demanded (INCREASES OR DECREASES) . A decrease in the price level also induces spending via the interest rate effect and the exchange rate effect. AD is simply the summation of all spending in the economy—the total of consumption, investment, government, and net export spending. Moreover, an increase in AD is caused by (AN INCREASE OR A DECREASE) in consumption, investment, government, and net export spending. An increase in AD means that a quantity of the economy’s goods and services are demanded at every price level. This is represented by the AD curve shifting to the (RIGHT OR LEFT).
SHEN: Why is the long-run aggregate supply curve (LRAS) vertical at the natural rate of unemployment, or potential real GDP level? What could cause it to shift?
VALERIE: The long-run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve is a vertical line at the value of real GDP at the natural rate of unemployment because it is (UNAFFECTED OR AFFECTED) by the price level. This level of real GDP is instead determined by the productive capacity in the economy. If this productive capacity of the economy increases, the vertical (LRAS) curve will shift to the (LEFT OR RIGHT) . The productive capacity of a nation might increase if there are (FEWER OR MORE) resources like human and physical capital, natural resources and technological knowledge or (MORE OR LESS) productive resources. If the long-run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve shifts to the right, this would illustrate (ECONOMIC GROWTH OR A RECESSION).
SHEN: Why does the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve slope upward? What could cause it to shift to the right?
VALERIE: The short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve slopes upward because as the price level increases, firms receive a (HIGHER OR SMALLER) amount for their output and will increase production in the short run. If the SRAS curve shifts to the right, this means (LESS OR MORE) will be produced at any price level. A rightward shift of the SRAS curve could be caused by more (OPTIMISTIC OR PESSIMISTIC) expectations by businesses or (HIGHER OR LOWER) costs of production, (MORE OR FEWER) resources, like human and physical capital, natural resources and technological knowledge, or (MORE OR LESS) productive resources.
In: Economics
Scenario
Doug was a newly single 42-year-old man, whose reentry into the
dating world led to a few casual sexual encounters with women he
met while out in bars.
After 8 months apart, Doug and his wife reconciled. He decided
it would be best not to mention the other women he had intercourse
with because he was pretty sure his wife would get upset even
though they were not together at the time.
Signs and symptoms
Several months later, during a dentist’s appointment, the hygienist
noted what looked like a series of small bumps on the back and side
of Doug’s tongue, which had not been noted in his chart before.
At his next visit, the bumps had expanded into lesions and Doug mentioned them as a concern. The dentist noticed that his tonsil on the side of the tongue lesions was swollen, as were the lymph nodes. He prescribed an antibiotic, which Doug took.
The lesions didn’t get better but they also got no worse. A few
weeks later Doug developed a stubborn sore throat, so he went to
see his family physician.
Testing
When Doug’s doctor saw the lesion at the back of his tongue, he
sent Doug for an oral brush biopsy procedure.
When the biopsied tissue was stained with hematoxylin and eosin stain, the pathologist noted a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma.
A second sample was obtained by scalpel biopsy and tested for
human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA, specifically HPV-16 and HPV-18. The
results were returned as positive for viral DNA.
Question 1: Referring to the image below obtained
by transmission electron microscopy (TEM), describe the following
characteristics of HPV: Enveloped or nonenveloped? Capsid
symmetry?
Question 2: HPV has a double-stranded DNA genome. What is the Baltimore group for HPV?
Question 3: Other than genome, what criteria are used in the Baltimore model to create distinct groups of viruses?
Diagnosis
Doug’s diagnosis was stage IV squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 4: How is the detection of HPV DNA in the
cancer tissue pertinent to this diagnosis?
Question 5: How does HPV facilitate the replication of its genome and production of mRNA transcripts from the viral genes?
Treatment
Doug had surgery to remove the cancerous tissue, followed by six
months of radiation therapy. After two years, there was no
recurrence of the cancer.
Question 6: A vaccine, Gardisil, is available to
prevent HPV infection. How does a vaccine that protects against a
viral infection prevent cancer?
Additional Considerations
Question 7: In a human host cell, where does the
process of viral DNA replication occur?
Question 8: Where does translation of HPV mRNA occur in an infected host cell?
Question 9: How are viral latency and lysogeny related?
In: Biology
What is a comprehensive look at the blending of theory and practice in Education which include Ethics, Integrity, and Fairness into the blending of theory and practice? Please provide reference source with answer.
Below is a complete list of the Educational Leadership Constituent Council (ELCC):
Educational Leadership Constituent Council (ELCC) Standards
· Educational Vision – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of all learners by developing, articulating, implementing, and evaluating an educational vision that is shared and supported by the greater school community.
· School Culture – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of all learners by advocating, nurturing, and sustain a school culture that is shared and supported by the greater school community.
· Management – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of all learners by managing operations and resources to provide a safe, efficient, and effective learning environment.
· Communication and Collaboration with Communities – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of learners by practicing open, two-way communication and using collaborative strategies that respond to diverse community interests and needs. Acting with Honesty, Fairness, and Professional Ethics – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of all learners by personally demonstrating and promoting honesty, fairness, and professional ethics.
· The Political, Social, Legal, Economic, and Cultural Environments – An educational leader who guides, facilitates, and supports the success of all learners by understanding, responding to, and influencing larger political, social, legal, economic, and cultural environments and by recommending and implementing policy that guides district operations.
· Internship Practicum (Field Experience) of Standards-based Work in Real Settings – An educational leader synthesizes and applies the knowledge and practice to develop the skills identified in Standards 1-6 through substantial, sustained, standards-based work that is planned and guided cooperatively by the institution and school district personnel (or university, college, or business personnel as appropriate).
Subject is Education
The purpose of the Conceptual Framework (CF) as it relates to is to provide a foundation and organizational system through accomplishment of the primary objective,
Standard 1: Human Capital Management Educational leaders use their role as human capital manager to drive improvements in building leader effectiveness and student achievement.
Standard 2: Instructional Leadership Educational leaders are acutely focused on effective teaching and learning, possess a deep and comprehensive understanding of best instructional practices, and continuously promote activities that contribute to the academic success of all students.
Standard 3: Personal Behavior Educational leaders model personal behavior that sets the tone for all student and adult relationships.
Standard 4: Building Relationships Educational leaders build relationships to ensure that all key stakeholders work effectively with each other to achieve transformative results.
Standard 5: Culture of Achievement Educational leaders develop an encompassing culture of achievement aligned to the institution’s vision of success for every student.
Standard 6: Organizational, Operational, and Resource Management Educational leaders’ leverage organizational, operational, and resource management skills to support improvement and achieve desired educational outcomes.
In: Operations Management
1.1 Maria is a genetic counselor and has a son who looks very much like her. Total strangers often say “He is your little clone—he looks just like you!” She’s tempted to retort, “No he’s not! You obviously don’t know anything about genetics!” but instead just says “Thank you.”
a. Based on what you know about genetics explain why Maria’s son could not be her clone.
b. Would it be legal to for Maria to make a clone of herself? Should it be? Explain your answer in 1-2 sentences.
1.2 When I was an undergraduate, a friend of mine who knew I was working on genetics offered to pay me a tidy sum to clone his dog Mitzi, who he loved dearly, so that he would never have to be without her. Although I could have used the money, I declined.
a. If I had cloned Mitzi, would Mitzi’s clone have been identical to Mitzi in appearance and behavior?
b. If she would not have been identical, explain why not in terms of genetics and gene expression.
1.3 (2 pts) List an example of a clone that is found in nature (rather than made in agricultural practice or the lab) in each of the following categories and escribe the characteristic(s) that qualify it to be considered a clone, in 1-2 sentences.
a. Single-celled organism
b. Plant
c. Animal
1.4 Plants have been genetically modified for many different reasons, which can be loosely grouped into two categories:
To increase yield. Examples include pesticide resistance, longer shelf-life modification and drought resistance.
To directly improve human health. Examples include: increasing the nutritional value of crops, removing allergenic substances, and using crops to produce vaccines.
Find one example of a crop in each category, then answer the following questions for each. Do not use examples we will discuss in class, which are BT, Round-up ready crops and Golden Rice, or other crops modified to make beta carotene.
a.GMO plants to increase yield (3 pts)
i.Name the GMO (e.g corn) and the gene or genes that were added or changed.
ii.What benefit(s) does the gene/s confer to the crop?
iii.Is this product in commercial use today?
iv.What are the regulations on the use of this product? Does it need to be labeled? Do farmers have to have a special permit to grow it?
v.What is one concern regarding the use of this crop?
b.GMO plants to benefit human health (3 pts)
i.Name the GMO (e.g corn) and the gene or genes that were added or changed.
ii.What benefit(s) does the gene/s confer to humans?
iii.Is this product in commercial use today?
iv.What are the regulations on the use of this product? Does it need to be labeled? Do farmers have to have a special permit to grow it?
v. What is one concern regarding the use of this crop?
In: Biology
A positive tuberculin test means a patient...
Question 31 options:
|
may have active disease. |
|
|
may have been previously infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
|
|
may have a current dormant infection. |
|
|
may have active disease, may have been previously infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or may have a current dormant infection |
Varicella Zoster Virus goes latent in the dorsal root ganglion.
Question 32 options:
| True | |
| False |
The clinical term for inflammation of the membranes that line the brain and spinal cord is __________________ while the clinical term for inflammation of the brain is _______________________.
Question 33 options:
|
Encephalitis / microcephaly |
|
|
Meningitis / microcephaly |
|
|
Meningitis / encephalitis |
|
|
Encephalitis / meningitis |
The best prevention strategy for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Lyme disease is
Question 34 options:
|
vaccination |
|
|
condoms |
|
|
Insect repellant |
|
|
avoid drinking after others |
Reduced head size and brain development in infants is referred to as ___________.
Question 36 options:
|
Osteomyelitis |
|
|
Microcephaly |
|
|
Encephalitis |
|
|
Meningitis |
Which of the following pathogens is vector borne?
Question 37 options:
|
Borrelia burgdorferi |
|
|
Clostridium tetani |
|
|
Bacillus anthracis |
|
|
Treponema pallidum |
Which of the following is NOT a strategy for preventing Staphylococcus aureusinfections?
Question 38 options:
|
Avoiding contact with personal items of others |
|
|
Covering your mouth when you sneeze and cough |
|
|
Practicing good hygiene |
|
|
Covering wounds |
Which pathogen is NOT capable of making endospores?
Question 39 options:
|
Bacillus anthracis |
|
|
Clostridium difficile |
|
|
Staphylococcus aureus |
|
|
Clostridium tetani |
Hepatitis is inflammation of the _______.
Question 40 options:
|
Liver |
|
|
Brain |
|
|
Colon |
|
|
Kidney |
The best way to prevent transmission of respiratory illnesses is…
Question 41 options:
|
Covering coughs and sneezes |
|
|
Hand washing |
|
|
Abstinence |
|
|
Hand washing and covering coughs & sneezes |
Which of the following does NOT cause a congenital disease?
Question 42 options:
|
Rubella |
|
|
Syphilis |
|
|
Mumps |
|
|
Chicken pox |
Which of the following disease can be prevented by vaccination?
Question 43 options:
|
Meningococcal meningitis |
|
|
Pneumococcal pneumonia |
|
|
Streptococcal pharyngitis |
|
|
A and B only |
|
|
All of the above |
Antibiotics could be used to treat?
Question 46 options:
|
Meningococcal meningitis |
|
|
Herpes |
|
|
Colds |
|
|
Mumps |
Vaccinations are the best way to prevent?
Question 47 options:
|
Hepatitis A |
|
|
Hepatitis B |
|
|
Hepatitis C |
|
|
A and B |
|
|
C only |
|
|
All of the above |
Which of the following pathogens are transmitted during sexual intercourse?
Question 48 options:
|
Hepatitis A |
|
|
Human Immunodeficiency Virus |
|
|
Human Papillomavirus |
|
|
B and C |
|
|
All of the above |
Which of the following are TRUE concerning rheumatic fever?
Question 49 options:
|
It is a secondary infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes |
|
|
Antibodies against the bacterial M protein cross react with proteins on heart & joint tissue |
|
|
Symptoms include joint aches, irregular heart rhythm, and spasms of the limbs |
|
|
All of the above |
An eschar is the characteristic symptom of cutaneous anthrax.
Question 50 options:
| True | |
| False |
In: Anatomy and Physiology
Employee Benefits, 6th edition, Martocchio
Chapter 3, Caso 2
2. Managing Employee Benefits: A Discriminatory Time-Off Policy
As Karen Jarrod looked over her notes from the human resources (HR) compliance audit that she conducted at her new company, she decided she needed to take a closer look at the company’s time-off policies. Karen joined Staffon Consulting three months ago as the Director of Human Resources for the 1,500-employee company. Her first project in her new role was to review all of the company’s HR practices and policies to identify any legal compliance concerns. A report on the gender mix in the company’s workforce suggests she should take a closer look at some of the company’s policies.
Karen’s report suggests some gender imbalance in positions throughout the company. The company essentially has three broad groups of employees: managers, consultants, and clerical staff. As the table below summarizes, overall, women represent nearly half of the company’s employees. However, women are poorly represented in both the manager and consultant categories. This is a concern to Karen because the manager and consultant categories are the higher-paying positions in the company and represent greater career opportunities. Only 20 percent of the managers are women, and only 32 percent of the consultants are women. However, women comprise 75 percent of the clerical staff. Karen notes that she needs to examine the company’s hiring, performance management, and promotion practices to make sure that those processes are free of bias or barriers that prevent more women from becoming managers or consultants.
85
As Karen notes the lack of gender diversity in these positions, she considers the impact beyond the potential problem of the disparate pay of women in the company. In starting to look at the impact, she notes that there may be a concern with the company’s time-off policies. The company has two policies for time off, one for employees who are classified as exempt workers under the Fair Labor Standards Act and another for employees that are nonexempt. The time-off allocation for exempt workers is fairly generous. Exempt employees are eligible for two weeks of vacation each year upon hiring and three weeks of vacation after five years of service. Exempt employees also receive five personal days each year and may take sick days on an as-needed basis. Nonexempt employees receive one week of vacation each year after one year of service and two weeks of vacation after five years of service. Nonexempt employees receive two personal days each year and are limited to three sick days each year. Karen’s concern is that because the managers and consultants are exempt and the clerical staff is nonexempt, the company’s time-off policy may have an adverse impact against women
1. Do you think that Staffon’s time-off policy is discriminatory?
In: Operations Management