Question 282 pts

Small, seasonal, antigenic changes on the lipid envelope of the influenza virus can often leads to an epidemic.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 292 pts

Louis Pasteur is given credit for refuting the notion of spontaneous generation.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 302 pts

Adaptive immunity responses are affected by prior exposure to the agent.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 312 pts

Hay fever and asthma are examples of Type IV – Delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivities.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 322 pts

Droplet transmission is considered transmission by direct contact.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 332 pts

Herpes Simplex Virus -1 is transmissible with saliva and will persist for life.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 342 pts

Secretions of sweat and sebaceous glands are essential to the normal microbial population of the skin.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 352 pts

Helicobacter pylori produce a strong urease that allows it to survive in the harsh environment of the small intestine.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 362 pts

This phase in the sewage treatment process is primarily a biological activity.

Group of answer choices

primary

secondary

tertiary

none of the above

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Question 372 pts

Which of the following is an example of a specific defense mechanism

Group of answer choices

skin

mucus membranes

antibodies

inflammation

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Question 382 pts

An organism isolated from a hot spring in an acidic environment is most likely a member of:

Group of answer choices

Eubacteria

Eukaryotes

Archea

Viruses

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Question 392 pts

The least number of bacteria can be found residing in/on the:

Group of answer choices

skin

mouth

small intestine

large intestine

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Question 402 pts

In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is which of the following?

Group of answer choices

pyruvate

nitrate

NAD+

oxygen

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Question 412 pts

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding bacterial infections of the lower respiratory system?

Group of answer choices

They are more common than infections of the upper respiratory system.

They are usually more serious than upper respiratory infections.

They are a frequent form of nosocomial infection.

Pneumonia, whooping cough, and TB are examples of lower respiratory infections.

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Question 422 pts

The main cells of cellular immunity.

Group of answer choices

B-lymphocytes

T-lymphocytes

neutrophils

macrophages

Exercise 10-11 Effects of Changes in Profits and Assets on Return on Investment (ROI) [LO10-1]

[The following information applies to the questions displayed below.]

Fitness Fanatics is a regional chain of health clubs. The managers of the clubs, who have authority to make investments as needed, are evaluated based largely on return on investment (ROI). The company's Springfield Club reported the following results for the past year:

1. Compute the Springfield club’s return on investment (ROI).

2. Assume that the manager of the club is able to increase sales by $70,000 and that, as a result, net operating income increases by $18,200. Further assume that this is possible without any increase in average operating assets. What would be the club’s return on investment (ROI)? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 1 decimal place.)

3. Assume that the manager of the club is able to reduce expenses by $14,000 without any change in sales or average operating assets. What would be the club’s return on investment (ROI)?

4. Assume that the manager of the club is able to reduce average operating assets by $70,000 without any change in sales or net operating income. What would be the club’s return on investment (ROI)?

In the past your organization has encountered problems implementing the changes required by new union collective agreements. These problems have included being unable to meet agreed deadlines for processing retroactive pay and implementing new earnings and deductions. It is time once again for negotiations and, as Payroll Manager, you would like to be part of the process. After discussions with the Vice-President, Finance, you have been asked to provide a written document outlining the advantages of having payroll participate in this process.

Prepare a memo to the Vice-President outlining the problems you have encountered in the past and how they could have been avoided if you had been part of the negotiation process.

1. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding Real GDP?

1. Real GDP measures changes to actual production by removing the effects of inflation
2. Real GDP measures impact of inflation on the Canadian economy
3. Real GDP measures the proportion of production increases attributed to inflation
4. Real GDP is an inferior measure of economic growth, compared to Current GDP

2. What is GDP if Canada’s government spending is $250 billion, exports are $115 billion, gross investment is $120 billion, imports are $90 billion, and consumption spending is $420 billion?

1. $575 billion
2. $765 billion
3. $815 billion
4. $995 billion

3. Which of the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is incorrect?

1. Harmful goods, such as cigarettes and alcohol, are excluded from CPI calculations
2. The CPI indirectly measures the purchasing power of consumers’ incomes
3. The goods included in the CPI calculations are weighted based on their importance to a typical household
4. The CPI may not be accurate for households who purchase large amounts of luxury goods

4. Which type of unemployment is most likely to mirror the business cycle?

1. Inadequate-demand
2. Frictional
3. Structural
4. Seasonal

Use the following data to answer questions 5-7.

Year Price Output

2000 $35 120,000

2001 $45 128,000

2002 $55 135,000

2003 $60 142,000

Base Year = 2001

5. What is the price index for 2003? a) 100

b) 109

c) 133

d) 171

6. What is the current GDP for 2000? a) $120,000

b) $3,276,000

c) $4,200,000

d) $9,360,000

7. What is the real GDP for 2002? a) $6,075,000

b) $6,086,066

c) $7,425,000

d) $9,058,500

8. What is the major difference between GDP and GNP?

1. GDP measures all production in Canada, while GNP measures only production by Canadian firms abroad
2. GDP measures all production in Canada, while GNP measures all production by Canadian- owned anywhere
3. GDP measures only production by Canadian-owned firms in Canada and abroad, while GNP measures production in Canada only
4. GDP is a newer and more accurate measurement of economic activity than GNP

9. Which of the following items would be classified as a negative using the GPI measurement of economic growth?

1. Coal-burning power generation
2. Expansion of the public transit system
3. Government anti-tobacco campaign
4. All would be classified as negatives using the GPI

10. The Lorenz Curve illustrates the relationship between:

1. Inflation and unemployment
2. Real GDP and income level
3. Income level and income distribution
4. Unemployment and income distribution

11. A decrease in demand for imports would result in:

1. An rightward shift of the AD curve
2. A leftward shift of the AD curve
3. An rightward shift of the AS curve
4. A leftward shift of the AS curve

12. If the APC for a country’s economy was 1, then:

1. There will be no withdrawal from spending in the economy
2. There would be no savings in the economy
3. The MPS for the economy must also = 1
4. The economy does not place any value on spending money

13. Assume that you are given $2,800, your MPS is 0.4. How much of the $2,800 would you spend?

a) $420

b) $700

c) $1,680

d) $2,380

14. Which of the following factors would cause an AS curve to shift to the right?

1. An increase in savings
2. An increase in the amount of resources available
3. An increase in demand for imports
4. An increase in gross investment

15. The incidence of poverty in Canada is highest among which of the following groups?

1. Married couples with children
2. Single-parent families (female head)
3. Single-parent families (male head)
4. Elderly unattached females

16. A tax on cigarettes is an example of a:

1. Sales tax
2. Excise tax
3. Tariff
4. Custom duty

17. The benefits-received approach to taxation is difficult to implement because:

1. Some government programs have no benefits
2. The benefits from various government programs are difficult to measure
3. People who have to pay for services try not to use them
4. The government does not have a wide variety of taxes that they can impose on the public

18. A tax on personal income is an example of a:

1. Direct tax
2. Indirect tax

3. Excise tax
4. Both b) and c) are correct

19. “Equal treatment of equals” refers to which of the four tax principles?

1. Neutrality
2. Consistency
3. Equity
4. Efficiency

20. If an individual with a $20,000 income pays $5,000 in taxes, an individual with a $40,000 income pays $7,500 in taxes, and an individual with a $60,000 income pays $10,000 in taxes, then the tax system is:

1. Progressive
2. Regressive
3. Proportional
4. Equitable

21. If the country’s economy is experiencing a period of high unemployment, it is likely that the government will attempt to:

1. Raise taxes to combat unemployment, and inflation will rise as a result
2. Cut taxes to combat unemployment, and inflation will fall as a result
3. Increase spending to combat unemployment, and inflation will fall as a result
4. Increase spending to combat unemployment, and inflation will rise as a result

22. Which of the following factors did not contribute to Canada’s period of stagflation in the 1970’s?

1. Increases in global oil prices
2. Devaluation of the Canadian dollar
3. Higher wages for Canadian labour
4. Government deregulation in the energy industry

23. Which of the following fiscal policy stabilizers is automatic?

1. An increase in education spending to help with textbook shortage
2. A decrease in property taxes for seniors
3. Employment insurance premiums
4. All are examples of automatic stabilizers

24. Which of the following is not a lag associated with discretionary fiscal policy?

1. Recognition lag
2. Political lag
3. Decision lag
4. Implementation lag

25. Which of the following statements would a proponent of supply-side economics agree with?

1. Consumer spending is the factor that drives a country’s economy
2. It is possible to simultaneously improve both inflation and unemployment
3. It is impossible to simultaneously improve both inflation and unemployment
4. An increase in aggregate supply will always lead to an increase in the price level

26. The current size of the Canadian public debt is:

1. $200-299 billion
2. $300-399 billion
3. $400-499 billion
4. $500-599 billion

27. If a government introduces a mix of surplus and deficit budgets over their term in power, based on the economic conditions at the time of the budgets, then the government is following which type of budgeting?

1. Functional finance
2. Full-employment budgeting
3. Annually-balanced budgeting
4. Cyclically-balanced budgeting

28. Which of the following problems is not considered a negative effect of the public debt?

1. The government’s spending decisions are restricted due to the large amounts of spending on debt charges
2. Repayment of outstanding debt can only be made by borrowing more money from ourselves or by raising our own taxes
3. The size of the debt results in lower interest rates which causes investors to look to foreign- owned investments
4. The exponential growth of the debt results in massive interest payments

29. Which of the following stabilizers would not be associated with an expansionary fiscal policy?

1. An increase in government environmental regulations
2. An increase in pollution control spending
3. An increase in waste management spending
4. A decrease in taxes used to fund environmental education

30. A reduction in government regulation regarding timber conservation would have what type of impact on aggregate demand and aggregate supply?

1. A leftward shift of the AD curve
2. A rightward shift of the AD curve
3. A leftward shift of the AS curve
4. A rightward shift of the AS curve

Select the false statement:

• A. Part-year residency is the year in which residency status changes.
• B. For a part-year resident: for the period of residency, the individual pays tax in Canada on worldwide income. For the period of non-residency, the individual pays tax in Canada on income earned in Canada from employment, carrying on business, and from disposal of taxable Canadian property
• C. A permanent establishment is a “fixed place of business through which the business of a resident of a country is wholly or partly carried on”. It can include a branch or a person who habitually exercises an authority to conclude/negotiate contracts.
• D. Facilities used solely for storage, display, or delivery of goods typically do not meet the definition of a permanent establishment
• E. An individual must always be a resident in at least one country at any given time
• F. A clean break is considered on the latest date of when: the individual leaves Canada, the individual’s immediate family leaves Canada, or the individual loses citizenship in Canada

Suppose Congress changed the tax laws so that Berndt's depreciation expenses doubled. No changes in operations occurred. What would happen to reported profit and to net cash flow?
-Select-IIIIIIIVV
I. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected since depreciation and amortization are non-cash expenses. Net cash flow would also be unaffected.
II. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected since depreciation and amortization are non-cash expenses. Net cash flow would double.
III. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would be unaffected.
IV. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would rise.
V. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would decline.

Now suppose that Congress changed the tax law such that, instead of doubling Berndt's depreciation, it was reduced it by 50%. How would profit and net cash flow be affected?
-Select-IIIIIIIVV
I. If depreciation were halved, taxable income and taxes would rise but net cash flow would fall.
II. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all rise.
III. If depreciation were halved, taxable income and taxes would decline but net cash flow would rise.
IV. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all decline.
V. If depreciation were halved, taxable income and net cash flow would rise but taxes would fall.

If this were your company, would you prefer Congress to cause your depreciation expense to be doubled or halved? Why?
-Select-IIIIIIIVV
I. You should prefer to have higher depreciation charges and therefore higher net income. Net cash flows are the funds that are available to the owners to withdraw from the firm and, therefore, cash flows should be more important to them than net income.
II. You should prefer to have higher depreciation charges and therefore higher cash flows. Net cash flows are the funds that are available to the owners to withdraw from the firm and, therefore, cash flows should be more important to them than net income.
III. You should prefer to have lower depreciation charges and therefore higher cash flows. Net cash flows are the funds that are available to the owners to withdraw from the firm and, therefore, cash flows should be more important to them than net income.
IV. You should prefer to have higher depreciation charges and therefore higher net income. Net income represents the funds that are available to the owners to withdraw from the firm and, therefore, net income should be more important to them than net cash flows.
V. You should prefer to have lower depreciation charges and therefore higher net income. Net income represents the funds that are available to the owners to withdraw from the firm and, therefore, net income should be more important to them than net cash flows.

Question 110 pts

The relatively short-term changes in allele frequencies within a population is __________.

Group of answer choices

Adaptation

Microevolution

Fitness

Natural Selection

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Question 210 pts

This world has many, diverse forms inhabiting every nook and cranny on, above, and below the surface of this Earth.

Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 310 pts

The _______ occurs when large numbers of a population die off leaving a small gene pool in the surviving population.

Group of answer choices

Founder Effect

Bottleneck Effect

Pinched Neck

Reduced Viability Effect

Punctuated Equilibrium Effect

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Question 410 pts

The Founder Effect occurs when __________.

Group of answer choices

many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population

small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves

many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity

large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves

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Question 510 pts

__________ is the movement of gene sets in and out of a population due to death, immigration, emigration, etc. smoothing out the variations in characteristics over time.

Group of answer choices

Gene Transfer

Gene Growth

Lipid Flow

Gene Flow

Protein Flow

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Question 610 pts

____________ is the change in large characteristics of a group of organisms leading to novel traits, new species, and unique new groups of organisms.  

Group of answer choices

Microevolution

Macroevolution

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Question 710 pts

A _________ is a group of individuals of the same species living in the same place at the same time.

Group of answer choices

Community

Biome

Ecosystem

Species

Population

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Question 810 pts

__________ Selection is a type of Natural Selection which tends to move the most common form toward one of the extremes.

Group of answer choices

Destabilizing

Stabilizing

Unidirectional

Diversifying

Directional

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Question 910 pts

The _________ occurs when a small group of individuals are the entire gene pool of all future generations of a species producing traits which are not necessarily characteristic of the original, large population.

Group of answer choices

Reduced Viability Effect

Punctuated Equilibrium Effect

Bottleneck Effect

Pinched Neck

Founder Effect

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Question 1010 pts

Which one of the following would a Biologist describe as Microevolution?

Group of answer choices

a change in the gene pool of a population from one generation to the next but no new species are formed

the formation of new species

the extinction of species

dramatic biological changes, such as the origin of wings on a bird which leads to a new novel characteristic and true flight

Discuss the changes in the College Earnings Premium since the 1970s. How have female high school dropouts fared relative to their male counterparts and why? How have female college graduates fared relative to their male counterparts and why?

In each of the following balanced oxidation-reduction equations, identify those elements that undergo changes in oxidation number and indicate the magnitude of the change in each case

Part A

2MnO4−(aq)+3S2−(aq)+4H2O(l)→3S(s)+2MnO2(s)+8OH−(aq)

Enter your answers as chemical symbols separated by a comma.

Part C

4H2O2(aq)+Cl2O7(g)+2OH−(aq)→2ClO2−(aq)+5H2O(l)+4O2(g)

Enter your answers as chemical symbols separated by a comma

Ba2+(aq)+2OH−(aq)+H2O2(aq)+2ClO2(aq)→Ba(ClO2)2(s)+2H2O(l)+O2(g)

Enter your answers as chemical symbols separated by a comma

Explain how investors react to changes in a company’s dividend payout policy. Discuss what a firm’s payout policy indicates about the financial status of a company. Discuss how taxes impact an investor’s desire for dividends. In the long-term, how does a company’s payout policy impact the value of an investor’s portfolio (disregarding taxes)?

Please show work