Questions 1-4

1. DNA polymerase I is thought to add nucleotides ________.

2.

In individuals affected with Tay-Sach' s disease, there is almost no activity of an enzyme called hexosaminidase A. Heterozygotes, with only a single copy of the mutant gene, have 50% enzyme function but are phenotypically normal. This illustrates ______.

3.

wo recessive mutations that cause a "wingless" mutation in Drosophila are independently isolated. A researcher wonders whether the mutations are in the same gene or different genes, so he crosses the two strains. The outcome is that all offspring develop normal wings. Restoration of the wild-type phenotype is due to _________.

4.

For some genetic disorders, the expression of the phenotype depends on whether an allele is inherited from the mother or father. An example in mice occurs with a gene for insulin-like growth factor II (Igf2): a heterozygous mouse will be dwarf if its normal allele comes from his mother and its mutant allele comes from his father. This is an example of _________.

1. What are the four key environmental limitations to plant growth, considered at global-
scale?
2. What are the major environmental factors that influence decomposition rates in
ecosystems?
3. Stomata are first seen in plant fossils from about 420 million year ago (Mya). List one
advantage and one disadvantage of stomata.
4. Cuticles are first seen in plant fossils from about 450 million year ago (Mya). List one
advantage and one disadvantage of cuticles.
5. An important evolutionary advance seen in angiosperms is that vascular tissue is largely
made up of vessels rather than tracheids. Describe one key advantage and one key
disadvantage of vessels over tracheids.
6. Give two reasons why bryophytes are generally constrained to wet habitats.
7. The most central and abundant enzyme in photosynthesis is
dominant pigment is_______.
while the
8. At what time of day does dark respiration happen?
9. C4 photosynthesis relies on several enzymes, most especially the initial fixation step
which is catalysed by the enzyme called______________ .
10. Name 4 of the largest (most speciose) plant families in Australia.
11. Name one characteristic plant genus in each of these Australian vegetation types:
a. Chenopod shrubland
b. Mallee woodland
c. Mulga woodland
d. Savanna
12. What functional roles do root hairs and mycorrhizas have in common?

The cost of NOT performing 2 cycles of photorespiration is

1 C in the form of CO2

4 C in the form of 2 molecules of phosphoglycolate

1 C (as CO2), 2 ATP, 2 NADPH equivalents, and one molecule of NH4+

3 ATP and 2 NADPH

5 ATP and 2 NADPH

As temperature increases, the quantum yield of photosynthesis in C3 plants is directly affected by

The decreasing ratio of CO2 to O2 in the aqueous phase

The increasing ratio of CO2 to O2 in the aqueous phase

The decreasing ratio of CO2 to O2 in the gas phase

The increasing ratio of CO2 to O2 in the gas phase

In CAM plants and ‘regular’ C4 plants, the enzyme that first fixes CO2 into an organic molecule is

Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase for both

Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPC) for both

NADP-malic enzyme for both

Rubisco in CAM, PEPC in ‘regular’ C4

Rubisco in ‘regular’ C4, PEPC in CAM

In CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) plants, when and where

are sugars produced?

During the night, in mesophyll cells

During the day, in mesophyll cells

During the night, in bundle sheath cells

During the day, in bundle sheath cells

QUESTION 10

In ‘regular’ C4 plants, when and where are sugars

produced?

During the night, in mesophyll cells

During the day, in mesophyll cells

During the night, in bundle sheath cells

During the day, in bundle sheath cells

1. (4pts) For the following hypothetical situations make a prediction about potential functional impact for the individual:

         Gallbladder removal

         Hyposecretion of secretin

         Vagotomy (severing of the vagus nerve) proximal to the stomach

         Lack of receptors for leptin on cells of the body

2. For each of the following digestive enzymes identify which organ or gland it is produced in/secreted by, what stimulus drives the release of that enzyme, and which macromolecules it plays a role in digesting:

3) Based on your understanding of nitrogen balance identify which condition exists in each of the following examples:

• An anorexic patient is rapidly losing skeletal muscle tissue

• A weight lifter who is increasing lean body mass

• A pregnant woman proceeding through a healthy pregnancy

• A serious burn victim who is receiving protein supplements but still losing weight

4) Jacob has been working a much longer shift than he expected and is very hungry. He is slightly hypoglycemic; luckily, he has no pathology that prevents his body from reacting appropriately. Predict what hormonal changes can be expected in Jacob in response to his low blood glucose levels, the effect that hormone will have within the body, and the specific fuel source that his cells will utilize for their metabolic needs in response to this situation.

Naked mole rats were recently discovered to be able to survive 18 minutes of an anoxic (0% oxygen) environment without any difficulty. In 1976, the naked mole rat hemoglobin was studied and compared to that of mice and found to have higher oxygen affinity. The data below are representative of this study.

Table 1: Whole blood from each organism was assayed at pH 7.4 for oxygen affinity at two different temperatures. The P₅₀ is reported at each condition in the table.

Naked mole rats have a body temperature of 30-32°C, which is lower than the 37°C body temperature of most other mammals including Mus musculus.

A. Quickly look up data regarding the solubility of oxygen in water versus temperature. Does body temperature alone explain the greater oxygen binding capacity of Heterocephalus glaber compared to Mus musculus?

B. What do these p50 values indicate about the oxygen binding capacity of Heterocephalus glaber hemoglobin compared to Mus musculus hemoglobin?

C. Furthermore, the amount of 2,3-BPG in each organism’s bloodstream was assayed. [2,3-BPG] in Heterocephalus glaber was found to be 7.3mM and for Mus musculus, 7.4mM. Additionally, when hemoglobin from each organism was stripped of any ligands and then assayed for oxygen binding, the p50 for Heterocephalus glaber was found to be 8.0mmHg and the p50 for Mus musculus was found to be 11.3mmHg. What do these data tell you about the mechanism by which the affinity of each organism’s hemoglobin differs?

D. The protein sequence for the b-subunit of the naked mole rat hemoglobin is as follows:

HLSNE EKAAV TSLWG KVNVE ETGGE ALGRL LVVYP WTQRF FEHFG DLSSP SAIMG NPKVK AHGAK VLASF SEGLN HLDNL KGTFA KLSEL HCDKL HVDPE NFRLL GNVIV IVLAH HHGHD LTPTV QAAFQ KVVAG VAHAL GHKYH

Note that the actual structure of hemoglobin or the actual protein and mRNA sequences of other subunits of hemoglobin in the naked mole rat have not been studied. The mRNA information available is predicted from genome sequencing efforts, but has not been experimentally verified or studied.

What is the significance of the shaded amino acids? Hint, use your book. Are there any major differences in the two sequences that might explain the phenotype? Do not spend too much time agonizing over this.

1. Draw a picture of a cell located in the intestines for yourself and label the surfaces and draw the location of the different receptors found on the plasma membranes. Then explain in your own words to turn in all of the different carrier proteins involved in the reabsorbtion of sodium and glucose from the intestinal mucosa to the blood.
2. What is the functional significance of tight junctions? Reflect on the fact that this is the same system involved in the kidneys for the reuptake of sodium and glucose in the kidney tubules. Why is that important to consider?
3. Draw a picture of a parietal cell located in the stomach for yourself. What protein carriers are important in the production and secretion of HCl in the stomach. How is this process influenced by carbon dioxide transport on the erythrocyte plasma membrane?
4. What is the importance of solute concentration on the reuptake of water in animal and plant cells?
5. How do vacuoles work? What is the importance of V-class H+ ATP-ase pumps in the uptake of water?
6. Channel proteins are typically involved in the import of ions across the plasma membrane. What are the major characteristics of potassium leak channels?
7. What is the importance of the water of hydration in the importance of movement of ions, like potassium, through channel proteins?
8. How is the Na+/K+ ATP-ase critical in the re-establishment of the resting membrane potential across the plasma membrane of animal cells.
9. How do voltage-gated ion channels work in the venus fly trap.
10. In anatomy and physiology, we discussed how nerve signals travel to the cochlear nerve allowing us to hear. Using your knowledge of anatomy and the information provided on the power point slides provided to you explain the role of stress-activated channels in this process.
11. Cholera toxin, a pathogenic intestinal bacterium, causes an indirect reduction in the activity of the Na+/K+-ATPase in intestinal epithelial cells. This results in reduced uptake of small sugars and amino acids from the intestine, as well as severe diarrhea. How are these two problems (eg. reduced nutrient uptake and diarrhea) coupled to impaired Na+/K+- ATPase function?
12. Like animal cells, the plasma membrane of plant cells has a membrane potential and plant cells also use cation-based symport for nutrient uptake. However, plant cells do not have Na+/K+-ATPase in their plasma membranes. Explain, then, how they establish and maintain a membrane potential and how they co-import nutrients in the absence of the Na+/K+ pump. Also explain how plant cell volume is regulated in light of this major difference.

Which of the following microorganisms lack mitochondria? a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Parasites d. Protists Which bacteria have cell walls that are approximately 10-20% peptidoglycan? a. Gram-positive b. Gram-negative c. Acid-fast d. Wall-deficient Which bacteria are difficult to Gram stain? a. Gram-positive b. Gram-negative c. Acid-fast d. Wall-deficient Which of the following types of bacteria are slow growing, due to the high lipid content of their cell walls? a Gram-positive b Gram-negative c. Acid-fast d. Wall-deficient Which of the following types of bacteria have strong cellular membranes that contain sterols? a Gram-positive b. Gram-negative c. Acid-fast d. Wall-deficient Which of the following types of bacteria have both a cell membrane and an outer membrane? a. Gram-positive b. Gram-negative c. Acid-fast d. Wall-deficient Which of the following is an endotoxin, which can cause fever and inflammation, and is associated with Gram-negative bacteria? a. Teichoic acid b. Periplasmic space c. Peptidoglycan d. Lipopolysaccharide Which of the following structures is associated with Gram-negative bacteria and is an active area of cell metabolism? a. Teichoic acid b. Periplasmic space c. Peptidoglycan d. Lipopolysaccharide Which of the following structures is associated with Gram-positive bacteria? a. Teichoic acid b. Periplasmic space c. Peptidoglycan d. Lipopolysaccharide What term is used to describe bacterial cells that are spherical in shape? a. Bacillus b. Coccus c. Spirillum d. Vibrio Which of the following is a function of a capsule? a. Promotes phagocytosis b. Protects cells from bursting c. Allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces and each other d. Regulates movement of water into and out of the bacterial cell Which of the following is a function of peptidoglycan? a. Promotes phagocytosis b. Protects cells from bursting c. Allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces and each other d. Regulates movement of substances into and out of the bacterial cell Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane? a. Promotes phagocytosis b. Protects cells from bursting c. Allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces and each other d. Regulates movement of substances into and out of the bacterial cell Which of the following statements about pili is false? a. They contain adhesins, which allow the bacteria to adhere to receptors on cells or tissues. b. They promote chemotaxis. c. Attachment pili increase pathogenicity of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. d. They are involved in conjugation. Which of the following statements about endospores is false? a. They are resistant to heat and drying. b. Clostridium are capable of producing endospores. c. They are used for reproduction. d. Endospore formation begins with the building of the endospore septum. Which of the following statements is true about chemotaxis? a. Movement towards a nutrient is an example of negative chemotaxis. b. Movement towards light is an example of positive chemotaxis. c. Flagella facilitate chemotaxis. d. Pili facilitate chemotaxis. ___________ are intracellular pathogens that require a host cell to replicate. a. Fungi b. Protists c. Helminthes d. Viruses Which of the following statements is true about reverse transcriptase? a. It is associated with the Adenoviridae family. b. It is associated with the Retroviridae family. c. Double-stranded RNA viruses require it. d. It replicates RNA from DNA. What is the difference between a naked virus and an enveloped virus? a. A naked virus contains a nucleocapsid, but the enveloped virus does not. b. An enveloped virus contains a nucleocapsid, but the naked virus does not. c. A naked virus contains an external membrane, but the enveloped virus does not. d. An enveloped virus contains an external membrane, but the naked virus does not. Which of the following is not a viral group? a. Positive sense DNA virus b. Double-stranded DNA virus c. Single-stranded DNA virus d. Double-stranded RNA virus Which viral family is composed of (-) sense single-stranded RNA with an envelope and causes the flu? a. Flaviviridae b. Orthomyxoviridae c. Retroviridae d. Adenoviridae Which type of infectious agent can be multicellular or single-celled and can reproduce both sexually and asexually? a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Helminthes d. Bacteria Histoplasma are dimorphic fungi. What of the following statements is true about Histoplasma? a. They can reproduce asexually and sexually. b. They can grow in a yeast-like form or as a filamentous mycelium. c. They cannot form hyphae. d. They only reproduce sexually. Which of the following statements is false about hypha? a. They are used to form long filaments of fungi. b. Fungi can regrow from a single hyphal cell. c. A yeast cell is called a hypha. d. They can contain multiple nuclei. Which phylum of fungi contains Rhizopus, which can reproduce both sexually and asexually? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Deuteromycota d. Zygomycota Which of the following fungi are included in the Basidomycota phylum? a. Saccharomyces b. Black bread mold c. Mushrooms d. Penicillium All of the following phyla of fungi have a sexual stage, except: a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Deuteromycota d. Zygomycota Which of the following organisms are multicellular animals that contain rudimentary organ systems? a. Protozoa b. Yeast c. Helminths d. Algae Which of the following organisms are unicellular, contain organelles, and can cause vector-borne diseases, including sleeping sickness? a. Protozoa b. Slime molds c. Helminths d. Algae Module 2 Practice Test Questions Which of the following refers to the time between initial infection and symptom onset? a. Incubation period b. Invasive phase c. Prodromal phase d. Convalescent period A person has been ill with a bad cold. She is now feeling better, but is still not 100%. What disease stage or period is she currently in? a. Incubation period b. Invasive phase c. Prodromal phase d. Convalescent period Which statement best describes the relationship between a parasitic microorganism and a human host? a. The microorganism and human both benefit equally from the relationship. b. The human benefits slightly more than the microorganism. c. The microorganism benefits, while the human suffers. d. The microorganism benefits from the relationship, while the human is neither helped nor harmed by it. Microorganism X lives inside Human Y, where it has everything it needs to thrive. In exchange, Microorganism X makes vitamins for Human Y. Which of the following best describes this type of relationship? a. Commensalism b. Parasitism c. Mutualism d. Antagonism What is the primary reservoir for the pathogen that causes tetanus? a. Contaminated food b. Soil c. Contaminated water d. Infected animals What is the primary reservoir for the pathogen that causes histoplasmosis? a. Deer ticks b. Contaminated water c. Cat scratches d. Aerosols of dried feces Module 3 Practice Test Questions What is an example of a physical barrier that helps to protect the body from infectious agents? a. Sweat b. Lysozyme c. Mucosa d. defensins Which is an example of a specific defense: a. Production of antibodies by B cells b. Engulfing of bacteria by macrophages c. Creation of a membrane attack complex by the complement system d. Induction of fever by cytokines Which cells will take longer to respond to a pathogen, but will be able to be part of an adaptive response to the pathogen? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Natural killer cells d. T cells Which cells are a type of lymphocyte? a. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) b. Macrophages c. B cells d. Neutrophils Which cell type is responsible for producing antibodies? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Helper T cells c. Macrophages d. B cells How might an individual naturally acquire adaptive immunity to influenza? a. Receive an influenza vaccination b. Receive antibodies purified from an influenza patient c. Become infected with the flu and generate memory cells specific for influenza d. Become infected with rhinovirus How might an individual artificially acquire passive immunity to influenza? a. Receive an influenza vaccination b. Receive antibodies purified from an influenza patient c. Become infected with the flu and generate memory cells specific for influenza d. Become infected with rhinovirus Which antibody isotype is produced first during both primary and secondary immune responses? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgE Which cells respond very quickly to tissue injury and protect mucous membranes and blood against infection? a. Basophils b. T cells c. Neutrophils d. B cells What is a type of molecule capable of helping in intercellular communication and in activating leukocytes? a. Mast b. Fever ion c. Monocyte d. Cytokine Which cells can both ingest pathogens and activate cells of the adapative immune system? a. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) b. Macrophages c. Mast cells d. Eosinophils Which antibody isotype is primarily found guarding mucosal surfaces? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgE Patients suffering from respiratory allergies typically have high levels of which type of antibody? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgE Of the four types of hypersensitivity, which type involves antibodies but does not specifically rely on immune complex formation? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV The exact cause of rheumatoid arthritis is unknown. We do know that it involves the following: a. An allergic response b. Attack of the immune system on the body’s own cells c. Excessive IgE in the body d. High levels of parasites in the body Module 4 Practice Test Questions What is the mode of action of sulfonamides? a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Prevention of folic acid synthesis d) Prevention of niacin synthesis How does erythromycin, the most common macrolide, prevent bacterial growth? a) Inhibition of protein synthesis. b) Inhibition of B6 synthesis. c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis. d) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. How do aminoglycosides exert their action? a) Inhibition of protein synthesis. b) Inhibition of B6 synthesis. c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis. d) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. How do quinolones and rifampin exert their action? a) Inhibition of protein synthesis. b) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis. c) Prevention of cell wall synthesis. d) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. The anti-helminthic agent niclosamide interferes with which of the following? a) Carbohydrate metabolism b) RNA polymerase c) Protein synthesis d) Calcium uptake The antiviral drug azidothymidine (AZT), which is used to treat patients infected with HIV, does which of the following? a) Prevents reverse transcriptase b) Stimulates the patient’s immune system c) Destroys the viral membrane d) Destroys the viral capsid Penicillins could be inactivated if a bacterial strain acquired which of the following mechanism of resistance? a) Betalactamase enzyme b) Alteration of targets c) Alteration of membrane permeability d) Alteration of metabolic pathway Which mechanism of resistance can be directly caused by changes in cell membrane proteins? a. Alteration of targets b. Alteration of membrane permeability c. Development of enzymes d. Alteration of a metabolic pathway Resistance to erythromycin can be caused by which mechanism of resistance? a) Development of an enzyme b) Alteration of an enzyme c) Alteration of membrane permeability d) Alteration of a target A college student is prescribed antibiotics for a respiratory infection. The clinician emphasizes that she must take the drugs for the full ten days. Why? a) Many bacteria take quite a while to die b) It takes several days for the body to become used to the antibiotic c) Drugs are expensive and should not go to waste d) Bacteria that are not killed by the antibiotic can become resistant Streptomycin and penicillin might be prescribed together to treat an infection. This is because streptomycin destroys the cell wall, allowing penicillin to be better absorbed. This dual-action is an example of which of the following? a. Antagonism b. Synergism c. Quorum sensing d. Cross-resistance What is the target of the drug tetracyline? a. Carbohydrate metabolism b. Nucleic acid synthesis c. Ribosomal subunits d. Protein synthesis Which mechanism would NOT result in resistance to chloramphenicols? a. Alteration of the metabolic pathway b. Mutation of ribosomal subunits c. Reduced membrane permeability d. Changes in chloramphenicol acetyltransferase Module 5 Practice Test Questions Frank buys milk each Saturday morning from his neighbor's cow Bessie. What method should be used for controlling microbial growth? a. Irradiation b. Pasteurization c. Filtration d. Autoclaving What is the mode of action for the antimicrobial function of detergents? a. Disrupting cells membranes b. Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis c. Inhibiting protein synthesis d. Methylating DNA Bactericides reduce microbial growth by: a. Deactivating viruses b. Inhibiting viral replication c. Killing bacteria d. Destroying fungi Virucides reduce microbial growth by: a. Deactivating viruses b. Inhibiting viral replication c. Killing bacteria d. Destroying fungi This substance, which acts by denaturing proteins, is commonly used to disinfect skin. a. Alcohol b. Heavy metal c. Formaldehyde d. Dye Which of the following is routinely used to disinfect utensils in restaurants? a. Pasteurization b. Sterilization c. Sanitization d. Filtration Which of the following lowers pH and is consequently used to preserve food? a. Alcohols b. Acids c. Oxidizing agents d. Halogens A microbiologist’s child drops a beloved toy into a pile of cow dung. If she had every resource at her disposal, which method could she use to destroy all the microorganisms and viruses on her child’s toy? a. Sterilization b. Ultraviolet light c. Pasteurization d. Alcohol disinfection Which of the following is used to ensure antibiotics are sterile? a. Ultraviolet light b. Pasteurization c. Moist heat d. Filtration A woman falls while hiking and gets a puncture wound on her leg. She visits the First Aid station for assistance. Which of the following compounds can break disulfide bonds and would be a good choice to treat her injury? a. Formaldehyde b. Oxidizing agent c. Detergent d. Silver nitrite Microbial growth on spices such as cinnamon and nutmeg can be controlled through which of the following methods? a. Irradiation b. Filtration c. Moist heat d. Pasteurization Alkylating agents act against microbes through which mechanism? a. Raising pH b. Denature proteins c. Disrupt nucleic acids d. All of the above Endospores can be most effectively destroyed through which of the following methods? a. Irradiation b. Autoclave (moist heat) c. Pasteurization d. Filtration Which method is commonly used in lab animal rooms to limit the number of microorganisms present in the air? a. Filtration b. Ultraviolet light c. Moist heat d. Very low temperatures Alcohol is an effective antimicrobial agent because it does which of the following? a. Denatures proteins b. Disrupts nucleic acids c. Dissolves membranes d. Both A and C are correct

19. For Huntington’s disease, expansion of trinucleotide repeat occurs within the ORF causing the HTT protein to have many repeats of the amino acid glutamine, which in turn, causes the mutant protein to be toxic to neurons. Fragile X syndrome is also a trinucleotide repeat disease. How is the FMR1gene (or its gene product) affected in the case of fragile X syndrome?

20. Classify the mutation that causes sickle cell anemia three different ways.

21. Describe a cellular process that can lead to the conversion of a cytosine in a CpG sequence in the DNA to thymine.

19. For Huntington’s disease, expansion of trinucleotide repeat occurs within the ORF causing the HTT protein to have many repeats of the amino acid glutamine, which in turn, causes the mutant protein to be toxic to neurons. Fragile X syndrome is also a trinucleotide repeat disease. How is the FMR1gene (or its gene product) affected in the case of fragile X syndrome?

20. Classify the mutation that causes sickle cell anemia three different ways.

21. Describe a cellular process that can lead to the conversion of a cytosine in a CpG sequence in the DNA to thymine.

1). Where do the hydrophobic amino acid residues usually end up in a folded protein and why? How does hydrogen bonding play a role in stabilizing the beta-sheet structure? Where do the R groups then end up in this structural pattern?

2). Why is the alpha-helix so commonly found? Describe the structural basis of this conformation.

3). How do amyloid-beta peptides aggregate and eventually cause Alzheimer's disease? Where do the amyloid-beta peptides come form (what protein are they from and where is that protein normally found)?